Nursing Elites

1. Where is the impulse from the SA node delayed, enabling atrial contraction to complete before the ventricles are stimulated and contract?

• A. AV node
• B. Bundle of His
• C. SA node
• D. Aorta

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is AV node. The AV node is responsible for delaying the impulse from the SA node, allowing the atria to contract before the ventricles. This delay ensures the effective pumping of blood in a coordinated manner. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Bundle of His is responsible for transmitting the impulse to the Purkinje fibers, the SA node is the pacemaker of the heart responsible for initiating the heartbeat, and the aorta is the main artery carrying oxygenated blood from the heart to the body, respectively, none of which are involved in delaying the impulse to allow atrial contraction before ventricular contraction.

2. When administering furosemide (Lasix) to a client, which lab value is most important to monitor?

• A. Potassium
• B. Sodium
• C. Calcium
• D. Chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering furosemide (Lasix), it is crucial to monitor potassium levels closely. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent adverse effects associated with low potassium, such as cardiac arrhythmias. While monitoring sodium, calcium, and chloride levels may also be important in certain situations, potassium is the most critical to monitor when administering furosemide.

3. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client receiving lidocaine IV. What side effect is the healthcare provider most concerned about?

• A. Severe headache
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Seizures
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Seizures are the most concerning side effect of lidocaine IV administration due to its potential to indicate lidocaine toxicity, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiovascular collapse. Headache, nausea, and tremors are not typically associated with lidocaine IV and are less concerning compared to seizures in this context.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?

• A. PT/INR
• B. aPTT
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

5. This is a branch of the left coronary arteries which supplies the LEFT ATRIUM, posterior lateral surface of the left ventricle.

• A. Right coronary artery
• B. Left circumflex artery
• C. Left anterior descending artery
• D. Posterior descending artery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Left circumflex artery. The circumflex artery is a branch of the left coronary artery that supplies blood to the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle. Choice A, the Right coronary artery, does not supply the mentioned areas. Choice C, the Left anterior descending artery, supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle. Choice D, the Posterior descending artery, is a branch of the right coronary artery and supplies the inferior wall of the left ventricle and the posterior septum.

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