ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions
1. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client receiving lidocaine IV. What side effect is the healthcare provider most concerned about?
- A. Severe headache
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Seizures
- D. Tremors
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Seizures are the most concerning side effect of lidocaine IV administration due to its potential to indicate lidocaine toxicity, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiovascular collapse. Headache, nausea, and tremors are not typically associated with lidocaine IV and are less concerning compared to seizures in this context.
2. The nurse is caring for a client on enalapril (Vasotec). What is the most important side effect to monitor?
- A. Cough
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and cough is a common side effect associated with this class of medication. Monitoring for cough is crucial as it can indicate the development of a potentially serious condition known as angioedema. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not the most important side effect to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also potential side effects of enalapril; however, cough takes precedence due to its association with angioedema, a severe adverse reaction.
3. This is a branch of the left coronary arteries which supplies the LEFT ATRIUM, posterior lateral surface of the left ventricle.
- A. Right coronary artery
- B. Left circumflex artery
- C. Left anterior descending artery
- D. Posterior descending artery
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Left circumflex artery. The circumflex artery is a branch of the left coronary artery that supplies blood to the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle. Choice A, the Right coronary artery, does not supply the mentioned areas. Choice C, the Left anterior descending artery, supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle. Choice D, the Posterior descending artery, is a branch of the right coronary artery and supplies the inferior wall of the left ventricle and the posterior septum.
4. What is a condition where a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the legs, and can lead to serious complications if it travels to the lungs?
- A. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
- B. Pulmonary embolism
- C. Varicose veins
- D. Raynaud's disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Deep vein thrombosis occurs when a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the legs. If the clot dislodges and travels to the lungs, it can lead to a serious condition called a pulmonary embolism. Choice B, pulmonary embolism, is incorrect as it is the consequence of a DVT clot traveling to the lungs, not the initial condition. Choices C and D, varicose veins, and Raynaud's disease, respectively, are unrelated conditions to the formation of blood clots in deep veins.
5. The client is on warfarin and has an INR of 1.5. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Continue the current dose of warfarin.
- D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating that the client may be at risk of clot formation. The nurse's priority action should be to hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent further reduction of the INR. Increasing the dose could potentially lead to an increased risk of bleeding, and continuing the current dose may not be sufficient to bring the INR within the therapeutic range. Monitoring the client's INR closely is important but not the priority action in this scenario.
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