the client is receiving digoxin and complains of nausea what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Practice Exam

1. The client is receiving digoxin and complains of nausea. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client’s digoxin level (Choice A). Nausea can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, so assessing the digoxin level is crucial to determine if the medication dosage needs adjustment. Continuing the current dose of digoxin (Choice B) may worsen the symptoms if toxicity is present. Administering an antiemetic (Choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. Discontinuing digoxin immediately (Choice D) without assessing the digoxin level can be harmful if the medication is within the therapeutic range.

2. What is the procedure where a small mesh tube is inserted into an artery to keep it open after angioplasty?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, stent placement. Stent placement involves inserting a small mesh tube into an artery to maintain its openness after angioplasty. This choice is correct because it directly describes the procedure mentioned in the question. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Bypass surgery involves rerouting blood flow around a blocked artery using a vessel from another part of the body. Angioplasty is the procedure of widening a narrowed or blocked blood vessel, often followed by stent placement. Valve replacement is a surgical procedure to replace a damaged or diseased heart valve with an artificial or biological valve.

3. What is a condition where the heart beats too slowly, reducing the amount of blood pumped to the body?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by a slow heart rate, which reduces the amount of blood pumped to the body. This can lead to symptoms like fatigue and dizziness. Choice B, Tachycardia, is the opposite condition where the heart beats too fast. Choices C and D, Atrial fibrillation and Ventricular fibrillation, refer to irregular and potentially life-threatening rapid heart rhythms involving the atria and ventricles respectively, not a slow heart rate.

4. What is the ability of cardiac cells to generate an electrical impulse without being stimulated by an external source?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Automaticity is the correct answer because it refers to the inherent ability of cardiac cells to generate electrical impulses without the need for external stimulation. Contractility (Choice B) is the ability of the heart muscle to contract and generate force, not related to electrical impulse generation. Conductivity (Choice C) refers to the ability of cardiac cells to transmit electrical impulses from cell to cell, not the spontaneous generation of impulses. Refractoriness (Choice D) is the period during which the cardiac cells are recovering and not able to respond to a new stimulus, not the spontaneous generation of impulses.

5. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: With a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L, which is high, the priority action for the nurse is to hold the spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, it is crucial to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia by discontinuing the medication. Notifying the healthcare provider is necessary for further guidance and potential adjustments to the treatment plan. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would be contraindicated since the client already has elevated potassium levels. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) can worsen hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be unsafe and exacerbate the high potassium levels.

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