the client on nitroglycerin complains of a headache what is the most appropriate response by the nurse
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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers

1. The client on nitroglycerin complains of a headache. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to administer acetaminophen as prescribed for the headache. Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to vasodilation. Administering acetaminophen can help relieve the headache. Holding the next dose of nitroglycerin (Choice B) may not address the current headache, and discontinuing nitroglycerin immediately (Choice C) without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous due to the potential for rebound hypertension. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is not necessary for a common side effect like a headache, and the nurse can manage this symptom independently.

2. Which condition is characterized by a chronic cough that produces mucus, often caused by long-term exposure to irritants?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chronic bronchitis is the correct answer. It is characterized by a long-term cough with mucus production, often caused by smoking or prolonged exposure to irritants. Tuberculosis (choice B) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but does not usually present with a chronic cough as the main symptom. Asthma (choice C) is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, leading to wheezing and shortness of breath, but it does not typically cause chronic mucus production. Sinusitis (choice D) is inflammation of the sinuses and presents with symptoms like facial pain, nasal congestion, and post-nasal drip, but not specifically a chronic cough with mucus production.

3. The client is on furosemide (Lasix) and has a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer potassium supplements. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss. Therefore, the priority action is to administer potassium supplements to correct the imbalance. Option B is incorrect because holding the furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could further worsen the imbalance. Option C is incorrect as continuing the current dose of furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could lead to complications. Option D is incorrect because decreasing the dose of furosemide does not directly address the low potassium level that needs immediate correction.

4. The client on warfarin has an INR of 5.5. What is the priority nursing action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 5.5 is significantly elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. The priority nursing action in this situation is to administer vitamin K as an antidote to reverse the effects of warfarin and lower the INR. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is important but not as immediate as administering vitamin K. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the bleeding risk. Administering fresh frozen plasma (choice D) is not the first-line treatment for high INR due to warfarin.

5. The client on digoxin has a potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L is considered low and can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Holding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent adverse effects. Administering the digoxin as ordered (Choice B) would put the client at a higher risk for toxicity. Increasing the dose of digoxin (Choice C) is not appropriate when the client's potassium level is low. Administering potassium supplements (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the priority action in this situation.

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