Nursing Elites

1. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

2. What is a condition where the heart's valves do not function properly, leading to disrupted blood flow within the heart?

• A. Valvular heart disease
• B. Myocarditis
• C. Endocarditis
• D. Aneurysm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Valvular heart disease is the correct answer. It occurs when the heart's valves malfunction, leading to disrupted blood flow within the heart. Myocarditis refers to inflammation of the heart muscle, not specifically related to valve function. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, not necessarily caused by valve malfunction. Aneurysm is the abnormal bulging of a blood vessel, not directly related to heart valve function.

3. The client is on a beta blocker for hypertension. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Respiratory distress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is on a beta blocker for hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia. Beta blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. Tachycardia (choice B) is unlikely as beta blockers have the opposite effect. Hypertension (choice C) is the condition being treated, not a side effect of beta blockers. Respiratory distress (choice D) is not a common effect of beta blockers and is not typically monitored in clients taking beta blockers.

4. Which condition is characterized by a chronic cough that produces mucus, often caused by long-term exposure to irritants?

• A. Chronic bronchitis
• B. Tuberculosis
• C. Asthma
• D. Sinusitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chronic bronchitis is the correct answer. It is characterized by a long-term cough with mucus production, often caused by smoking or prolonged exposure to irritants. Tuberculosis (choice B) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but does not usually present with a chronic cough as the main symptom. Asthma (choice C) is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, leading to wheezing and shortness of breath, but it does not typically cause chronic mucus production. Sinusitis (choice D) is inflammation of the sinuses and presents with symptoms like facial pain, nasal congestion, and post-nasal drip, but not specifically a chronic cough with mucus production.

5. This is a test that measures the oxygen saturation level in the blood, often used to assess respiratory function.

• A. Pulse oximetry
• B. Spirometry
• C. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
• D. Lung function test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pulse oximetry. Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive test that measures the oxygen saturation level in the blood, helping to assess respiratory and cardiovascular function. Choice B, Spirometry, measures lung function by assessing airflow and volume. Choice C, Arterial blood gas (ABG), evaluates the acidity, oxygen, and carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Choice D, Lung function test, is a broad term that may include various tests to assess lung health, but specifically measuring oxygen saturation is done through pulse oximetry.

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