the client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam

1. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

2. Which structure serves as the normal pacemaker of the heart?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the SA node. The sinoatrial (SA) node is known as the natural pacemaker of the heart as it generates electrical impulses initiating each heartbeat. The SA node is located in the right atrium and sets the rhythm and rate of the heartbeat. The AV node (choice B) is responsible for delaying the electrical impulse to allow the atria to contract before the ventricles. Purkinje fibers (choice C) are specialized cardiac fibers responsible for the rapid conduction of impulses to the myocardial cells, and the atria (choice D) are the upper chambers of the heart involved in receiving blood from the veins.

3. The client is on nitroglycerin and reports chest pain. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. If a client on nitroglycerin reports chest pain, the priority action is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial to ensure prompt reassessment of the client's condition and treatment plan. Administering nitroglycerin, morphine, or aspirin without consulting the healthcare provider first can be risky as the chest pain may indicate a need for a change in treatment or further evaluation. Administering medications without proper assessment and guidance can lead to complications and is not recommended in this scenario.

4. Which valves close during ventricular systole and open during ventricular diastole?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Atrioventricular Valves. The atrioventricular (AV) valves, including the mitral valve and tricuspid valve, close during ventricular systole to prevent backflow of blood from the ventricles into the atria. They open during ventricular diastole to allow blood flow from the atria into the ventricles. Semilunar valves, choice A, are located at the exits of the ventricles and prevent backflow into the ventricles. The mitral valve and tricuspid valve, choices C and D, are specific types of AV valves.

5. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client on an ACE inhibitor. What lab value is most important to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. When a client is on an ACE inhibitor, it is crucial to monitor potassium levels because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in potassium, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B) is not as critical in this scenario. Creatinine levels (Choice C) are important for assessing kidney function but are not the most crucial lab value to monitor with ACE inhibitors. Calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by ACE inhibitors and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

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