ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam
1. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?
- A. Foods high in potassium
- B. Foods high in sodium
- C. Foods high in calcium
- D. Foods high in chloride
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.
2. What procedure is used to remove fluid from the pleural space to help a patient breathe more easily?
- A. Thoracentesis
- B. Bronchoscopy
- C. Echocardiogram
- D. CT scan
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Thoracentesis is the correct answer. It is a procedure where a needle is inserted into the pleural space to drain fluid, relieving pressure and helping the patient breathe more easily. Bronchoscopy (choice B) is a procedure used to examine the airways, not to drain fluid. An echocardiogram (choice C) is an imaging test to assess the heart's structure and function, not related to draining pleural fluid. A CT scan (choice D) is a cross-sectional imaging test that provides detailed pictures of the inside of the body, not used for draining pleural fluid.
3. What is a condition where the arteries that supply blood to the heart muscle become hardened and narrowed due to the buildup of plaque?
- A. Atherosclerosis
- B. Aneurysm
- C. Arrhythmia
- D. Peripheral artery disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Atherosclerosis is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the hardening and narrowing of arteries supplying blood to the heart due to plaque buildup. This condition increases the risk of heart attacks. Choice B, aneurysm, refers to a balloon-like bulge in an artery, not the hardening and narrowing of arteries. Choice C, arrhythmia, is an irregular heartbeat and not related to arterial hardening. Choice D, peripheral artery disease, involves the narrowing of arteries that supply blood to the limbs, not specifically to the heart.
4. A client on a beta blocker has a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Administer the beta blocker as ordered.
- C. Administer a diuretic to reduce blood pressure.
- D. Continue to monitor the client and reassess in 30 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is already low, and beta blockers can further decrease blood pressure. Administering the beta blocker can potentially worsen the situation, leading to complications. Administering a diuretic or continuing to monitor the client without taking immediate action could delay necessary intervention. Therefore, holding the beta blocker and involving the healthcare provider promptly is crucial in this scenario.
5. What condition involves a weakened and bulging aorta, the main artery in the body, potentially leading to rupture?
- A. Aortic aneurysm
- B. Arterial stenosis
- C. Pulmonary embolism
- D. Deep vein thrombosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An aortic aneurysm is a condition characterized by the weakening and bulging of the aorta, the body's main artery. If left untreated, this bulging may lead to a rupture, causing severe complications. Arterial stenosis refers to the narrowing of an artery, not the weakening and bulging seen in an aortic aneurysm. Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage in the pulmonary artery, which is different from the weakening and bulging in an aortic aneurysm. Deep vein thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, not related to the condition described in the question.
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