Nursing Elites

1. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

2. The nurse is teaching a client about side effects of ACE inhibitors. What is the most important side effect to monitor?

• A. Cough
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough in patients. This side effect is important to monitor because it can indicate the development of angioedema, a serious adverse reaction that requires immediate medical attention. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not typically the most important one to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also possible side effects of ACE inhibitors, but they are not as critical to monitor as the development of a persistent cough.

3. What is a device that delivers a fine spray of medication into the airways?

• A. Nebulizer
• B. Inhaler
• C. Oxygen concentrator
• D. Peak flow meter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A nebulizer is a device that converts liquid medication into a fine mist, allowing it to be inhaled directly into the lungs. This makes it the correct answer to the question. Choice B, an inhaler, delivers medication in a different form - as a pressurized dose that needs to be inhaled. Choice C, an oxygen concentrator, is used to deliver oxygen to patients with breathing difficulties but does not deliver medication. Choice D, a peak flow meter, is used to measure how fast air can be blown out of the lungs and is not involved in delivering medication.

4. Which type of heart disease involves the stiffening of the heart muscle, reducing its ability to relax and fill with blood?

• A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
• B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• C. Dilated cardiomyopathy
• D. Ventricular hypertrophy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, restrictive cardiomyopathy. This condition specifically involves the stiffening of the heart muscle, leading to a reduced ability to relax and fill with blood between beats. Choice B, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, is characterized by abnormal thickening of the heart muscle, not stiffening. Choice C, dilated cardiomyopathy, involves the enlargement and weakening of the heart chambers, not stiffening. Choice D, ventricular hypertrophy, refers to the thickening of the walls of the heart's pumping chambers but does not specifically involve the stiffening that is characteristic of restrictive cardiomyopathy.

5. This is a test that measures the oxygen saturation level in the blood, often used to assess respiratory function.

• A. Pulse oximetry
• B. Spirometry
• C. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
• D. Lung function test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pulse oximetry. Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive test that measures the oxygen saturation level in the blood, helping to assess respiratory and cardiovascular function. Choice B, Spirometry, measures lung function by assessing airflow and volume. Choice C, Arterial blood gas (ABG), evaluates the acidity, oxygen, and carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Choice D, Lung function test, is a broad term that may include various tests to assess lung health, but specifically measuring oxygen saturation is done through pulse oximetry.

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