ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. What is the initial action a healthcare provider should take for a patient with chest pain?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer nitroglycerin
- C. Administer morphine
- D. Prepare for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial action for a patient with chest pain is to administer oxygen. Chest pain can be caused by insufficient oxygenation, and providing oxygen helps alleviate the pain by increasing oxygen levels in the blood. Administering nitroglycerin or morphine may be appropriate based on the underlying cause of the chest pain, but oxygen should be given first to ensure the patient's oxygen supply is adequate. Surgery is not typically the initial intervention for chest pain.
2. Which lab test is used to assess renal function?
- A. Check blood glucose levels
- B. Monitor serum creatinine
- C. Monitor BUN
- D. Check electrolyte levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor serum creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of renal function as it reflects the glomerular filtration rate. An increase in serum creatinine levels indicates impaired kidney function. Checking blood glucose levels (choice A) is not specific to assessing renal function but is used to diagnose diabetes. Monitoring BUN (choice C) is important but not as specific as serum creatinine in assessing renal function. Checking electrolyte levels (choice D) is essential in assessing kidney function but is not as specific as monitoring serum creatinine.
3. What is the primary action when caring for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?
- A. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing
- B. Provide wound debridement
- C. Change the dressing daily
- D. Apply moist gauze to the ulcer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This type of dressing helps maintain a moist environment that is conducive to healing in stage 3 pressure ulcers. Providing wound debridement (choice B) is more suitable for higher stages of pressure ulcers where there is necrotic tissue. Changing the dressing daily (choice C) may be necessary but is not the primary action for a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Applying moist gauze (choice D) is not the recommended approach as it does not provide the same benefits as a hydrocolloid dressing.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Productive cough with green sputum
- C. Cyanosis of the lips and nail beds
- D. Mild shortness of breath
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cyanosis of the lips and nail beds. Cyanosis is a late sign of hypoxia and indicates severe oxygen deprivation, requiring immediate intervention in clients with pneumonia. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, productive cough with green sputum, and mild shortness of breath are common findings in clients with pneumonia and may not require immediate intervention unless they worsen or are accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
5. A client with schizophrenia starting therapy with clozapine is being discharged. Which symptom should the client report to the provider as the highest priority?
- A. Constipation
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Fever
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. When a client is taking clozapine, fever can indicate serious conditions such as infection or severe reactions, which need immediate medical attention. Constipation (choice A), blurred vision (choice B), and dry mouth (choice D) are common side effects of clozapine but are not as urgent as fever. Constipation can be managed with dietary changes or medications, blurred vision can improve over time, and dry mouth can be relieved with frequent sips of water.
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