ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has just received an opioid medication. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor first?
- A. Constipation.
- B. Drowsiness.
- C. Orthostatic hypotension.
- D. Respiratory depression.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client receives an opioid medication, the nurse should first monitor for respiratory depression as it is a life-threatening adverse effect associated with opioids. This can lead to inadequate ventilation and hypoxia, requiring immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and orthostatic hypotension are also common side effects of opioids but are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be decreased?
- A. Bilirubin.
- B. Albumin.
- C. Ammonia.
- D. Prothrombin time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, albumin levels are typically decreased due to impaired liver function. Bilirubin levels are often increased in cirrhosis due to the liver's inability to process bilirubin efficiently. Ammonia levels may be elevated in cirrhosis due to impaired ammonia metabolism by the liver. Prothrombin time is usually prolonged in cirrhosis because the liver's ability to synthesize clotting factors is impaired.
3. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- B. I will check my blood pressure at least once a week.
- C. I should increase my intake of dairy products.
- D. I should exercise for 30 minutes at least 5 days a week.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Exercising for 30 minutes at least 5 days a week helps manage hypertension by promoting cardiovascular health. Statements A, B, and C are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider. Checking blood pressure once a week is not frequent enough for effective monitoring. Increasing dairy product intake is not a recommended approach to managing hypertension.
4. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction that occurred 3 days ago. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Perform an ECG every 12 hours
- B. Place the client in a supine position while resting
- C. Draw a troponin level every 4 hours
- D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consultation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After an acute myocardial infarction, it is important to involve the client in cardiac rehabilitation to help them recover and manage their condition effectively. Performing an ECG every 12 hours is not necessary unless there are specific indications for it. Placing the client in a supine position may not be ideal as it can increase venous return, potentially worsening cardiac workload. Drawing troponin levels every 4 hours is excessive and not recommended as troponin levels usually peak within 24-48 hours post-MI and then gradually decline.
5. A client is 2 days postoperative following a hip replacement surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 88/min
- B. Redness and warmth in the calf
- C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
- D. Heart rate of 96/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Redness and warmth in the calf can indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication following hip replacement surgery. It is crucial to report this finding promptly for further evaluation and intervention. The other options, heart rates of 88/min and 96/min, are within normal limits for an adult and may not require immediate reporting. A urine output of 30 mL/hr is concerning for decreased kidney perfusion, but the priority in this case is the potential DVT due to its severe implications.
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