Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has just received an opioid medication. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor first?

• A. Constipation.
• B. Drowsiness.
• C. Orthostatic hypotension.
• D. Respiratory depression.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client receives an opioid medication, the nurse should first monitor for respiratory depression as it is a life-threatening adverse effect associated with opioids. This can lead to inadequate ventilation and hypoxia, requiring immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and orthostatic hypotension are also common side effects of opioids but are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving TPN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

• A. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose every 4 hours.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
• D. Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.' When caring for a client receiving TPN, it is crucial to maintain aseptic technique to prevent infections. Changing the central line dressing with sterile technique helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the client's system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours, monitoring blood glucose, and monitoring urine output are important aspects of care but are not directly related to preventing infection in clients receiving TPN.

3. A client with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.
• B. Withdraw the client's TV privileges if they do not attend group therapy.
• C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
• D. Place the client in seclusion when they exhibit signs of anxiety.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods is the appropriate intervention when caring for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing mania. During manic episodes, individuals often exhibit hyperactivity and may become exhausted. Rest periods can help reduce these symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Spending time in the day room may not address the client's need for rest, withdrawing TV privileges is not directly related to managing mania symptoms, and placing the client in seclusion when anxious can escalate the situation rather than promoting a calming environment.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian.

• A. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and states, 'I will need to limit how much spinach I eat.'
• B. A client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.'
• C. A client who has a prescription for spironolactone and states, 'I will reduce my intake of foods that contain potassium.'
• D. A client who has osteoporosis and states, 'I'll plan to take my calcium carbonate with a full glass of water.'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium and water. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should reduce their intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because limiting spinach intake due to warfarin, eating anchovies with gout, and taking calcium carbonate with water for osteoporosis do not directly relate to the medication's side effects or dietary restrictions associated with spironolactone.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has Cushing's disease. The nurse should expect the client to have an increase in which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Serum glucose level.
• B. Serum calcium level.
• C. Lymphocyte count.
• D. Serum potassium level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's disease, elevated cortisol levels lead to increased gluconeogenesis, insulin resistance, and breakdown of proteins and fats, resulting in elevated blood glucose levels. This is known as hyperglycemia. The other options, including serum calcium level (choice B), lymphocyte count (choice C), and serum potassium level (choice D), are not typically affected by Cushing's disease. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.

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