a nurse is assessing a client who has just received an opioid medication which of the following findings should the nurse monitor for first
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has just received an opioid medication. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client receives an opioid medication, the nurse should first monitor for respiratory depression as it is a life-threatening adverse effect associated with opioids. This can lead to inadequate ventilation and hypoxia, requiring immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and orthostatic hypotension are also common side effects of opioids but are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving heparin to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 80,000/mm3 is below the normal range and should be reported to the provider due to the risk of bleeding. Heparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, leading to a decrease in platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 38 seconds, hemoglobin of 15 g/dL, and an INR of 1.0 are within normal ranges and not directly concerning in this scenario. Platelet count is crucial to monitor in clients receiving heparin therapy to ensure adequate clotting function and prevent bleeding complications.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.

4. A nurse is preparing to reposition a client who had a stroke. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's ability to help with repositioning. When caring for a client who had a stroke, assessing their ability to participate in repositioning is crucial for promoting safety and encouraging their involvement in their care. This evaluation helps determine the level of assistance needed and supports the client's autonomy. Option A is incorrect because raising the side rails alone does not address the client's active involvement in repositioning. Option B is incorrect as using assistive devices may be necessary for safe repositioning. Option C is incorrect as discussing preferences is important but does not directly address the client's ability to assist in repositioning.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should be included?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding episodes. Encouraging the client to floss daily (choice A) is important for oral hygiene but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (choice B) is more relevant for clients with neutropenia to reduce the risk of infection. Avoiding serving the client raw vegetables (choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems but is not specifically related to thrombocytopenia.

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