Nursing Elites

1. A client with a colostomy needs optimal skin integrity. What action should the nurse take to promote this?

• A. Cleanse the peristomal skin with alcohol.
• B. Change the colostomy pouch every 3 days.
• C. Use a barrier cream to protect the skin from the pouch contents.
• D. Cleanse the stoma with hydrogen peroxide.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To promote optimal skin integrity in a client with a colostomy, using a barrier cream to protect the skin from the irritating effects of the colostomy pouch contents is essential. Cleansing the peristomal skin with alcohol (Choice A) can be too harsh and drying for the skin. Changing the colostomy pouch every 3 days (Choice B) is important for hygiene but using a barrier cream is more directly related to skin protection. Cleaning the stoma with hydrogen peroxide (Choice D) is not recommended as it can be too abrasive for the sensitive stoma area.

2. A client is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.
• B. Massage the client's legs every 4 hours.
• C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
• D. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take for a client at risk for developing DVT is to apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation and reducing the risk of DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest (Choice A) can actually increase the risk of DVT due to immobility. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours (Choice B) can dislodge blood clots and is contraindicated in DVT prevention. While administering anticoagulants as prescribed (Choice D) is a treatment for DVT, it is not a preventive measure for a client at risk.

3. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 12 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate 140/min.
• B. A bulging anterior fontanel.
• C. Respiratory rate 50/min.
• D. Blood glucose 45 mg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL is below the normal range for a newborn and indicates hypoglycemia, which can lead to serious complications if left untreated. Therefore, this finding should be reported to the provider immediately. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting. A heart rate of 140/min, a bulging anterior fontanel, and a respiratory rate of 50/min are all common findings in a newborn and do not raise immediate concerns.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has hypovolemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Increased blood pressure.
• D. Bounding pulse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In hypovolemia, the body responds to decreased fluid volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain adequate circulation. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not expected in hypovolemia since the heart rate typically increases to compensate for the reduced blood volume. Increased blood pressure (Choice C) is unlikely in hypovolemia as the decreased fluid volume leads to decreased pressure. A bounding pulse (Choice D) is more associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or fever, not specifically with hypovolemia.

5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Canned soup
• B. Bananas
• C. White bread
• D. Processed meats

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: White bread. White bread is low in potassium, making it a suitable choice for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Canned soup (choice A), bananas (choice B), and processed meats (choice D) are high in potassium and should be limited or avoided by individuals with chronic kidney disease to manage their condition effectively.

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