a nurse is caring for a client who has a central venous catheter which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent an air embolism
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A client has a central venous catheter. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent an air embolism?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to prevent an air embolism in a client with a central venous catheter is to have the client perform the Valsalva maneuver while the catheter is removed. This maneuver helps to close the airway and prevent air from entering the bloodstream. Keeping the catheter clamped at all times (Choice A) is not necessary and may lead to clot formation. Using a non-coring needle (Choice C) is important for accessing the catheter but does not specifically prevent air embolism. Flushing the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice D) helps maintain patency but does not directly prevent air embolism.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the history of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which condition in the client's history is a contraindication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication for the use of combination oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not typically contraindications for using combination oral contraceptives, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which is expected in DKA. However, in the context of DKA management, persistent or worsening hyperglycemia can indicate inadequate treatment response or complications, necessitating further monitoring and intervention. Potassium levels are crucial in DKA due to the risk of hypokalemia, but a level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range. Bicarbonate levels are typically low in DKA, making a value of 20 mEq/L consistent with the condition. Sodium levels of 135 mEq/L are also within normal limits and not a priority for immediate reporting in the context of DKA.

4. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient who is experiencing confusion after surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate initial response to a patient experiencing confusion after surgery. Confusion can be a sign of hypoxia, which is inadequate oxygen supply to the brain. Administering oxygen helps ensure that the patient is getting enough oxygen, addressing a potential cause of the confusion. Repositioning the patient, encouraging deep breathing exercises, or performing a neurological exam may be necessary depending on the situation, but addressing potential hypoxia should be the priority in a confused post-operative patient.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

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