ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A client has a central venous catheter. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent an air embolism?
- A. Keep the catheter clamped when not in use
- B. Have the client perform the Valsalva maneuver while the catheter is removed
- C. Use a non-coring needle to access the catheter
- D. Flush the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride every 24 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action to prevent an air embolism in a client with a central venous catheter is to have the client perform the Valsalva maneuver while the catheter is removed. This maneuver helps to close the airway and prevent air from entering the bloodstream. Keeping the catheter clamped at all times (Choice A) is not necessary and may lead to clot formation. Using a non-coring needle (Choice C) is important for accessing the catheter but does not specifically prevent air embolism. Flushing the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice D) helps maintain patency but does not directly prevent air embolism.
2. A client has deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Apply cold compresses to the affected extremity.
- B. Massage the affected extremity every 2 hours.
- C. Elevate the affected extremity above the level of the heart.
- D. Keep the affected extremity dependent when sitting.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to elevate the affected extremity above the level of the heart. This position promotes venous return, reduces swelling, and helps prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism. Applying cold compresses (choice A) can vasoconstrict blood vessels, potentially worsening the condition. Massaging the affected extremity (choice B) can dislodge the clot and lead to serious complications. Keeping the affected extremity dependent when sitting (choice D) can hinder venous return and exacerbate the DVT.
3. What is the initial action a healthcare provider should take when a patient presents with chest pain?
- A. Administer aspirin
- B. Give oxygen therapy
- C. Obtain ECG
- D. Prepare for surgery
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial action when a patient presents with chest pain is to obtain an ECG. This helps assess the heart's electrical activity and determine the cause of chest pain. Administering aspirin or oxygen therapy may be necessary later based on the ECG findings, but obtaining an ECG is the priority to evaluate the cardiac status. Surgery preparation is not the initial action for chest pain and should only be considered after a thorough assessment.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.
5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid eating spicy foods.
- B. Eat three large meals each day.
- C. Lie down after meals.
- D. Increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can trigger GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating three large meals each day can exacerbate GERD symptoms by putting pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, lying down after meals can worsen reflux due to gravity, and increasing dairy product intake may lead to higher fat consumption, which can also trigger GERD symptoms.
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