Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This medication will increase your potassium levels.
• B. You should take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
• C. This medication will decrease your blood glucose levels.
• D. You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in the teaching for a client with a new prescription for furosemide is that the client should take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause gastrointestinal upset, so taking it with food can help reduce this side effect and improve medication tolerance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not increase potassium levels, decrease blood glucose levels, or require an increase in the intake of potassium-rich foods. Therefore, the most important teaching point for the client is to take furosemide with food.

2. A nurse in a pediatric clinic is teaching a newly hired nurse about the varicella roster. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Children who have varicella are contagious until vesicles are crusted
• B. Children who have varicella should receive the herpes zoster vaccination
• C. Children who have varicella should be placed in droplet precautions
• D. Children who have varicella are contagious 4 days before the first vesicle eruption

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Children with varicella are contagious until the vesicles crust over, which is important for preventing transmission. Choice B is incorrect as varicella and herpes zoster are caused by different viruses, so the varicella vaccine is given to prevent varicella, not herpes zoster. Choice C is incorrect because varicella is primarily spread through respiratory secretions, so airborne precautions are recommended, not droplet precautions. Choice D is incorrect as children with varicella are contagious even before the first vesicle eruption, not just 4 days before.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube following thoracic surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Clamp the chest tube when assisting the client out of bed.
• B. Empty the drainage system every 8 hours.
• C. Keep the collection device below the client's chest.
• D. Strip the chest tube every 4 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to keep the collection device below the client's chest. This positioning ensures proper drainage of fluid from the chest, preventing backflow of fluids. Clamping the chest tube when assisting the client out of bed is incorrect as it can lead to fluid accumulation and potential complications. Emptying the drainage system every 8 hours is necessary but not the priority over maintaining proper positioning. Stripping the chest tube every 4 hours is an outdated practice and can cause damage to the tissue and should be avoided.

4. A client who has a positive stool culture for Clostridium difficile should be placed in which type of room for infection control purposes?

• A. Wear a face shield prior to entering the room.
• B. Place the client in a private room.
• C. Place the client in a negative pressure room.
• D. Use an alcohol-based hand rub following client care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the client in a private room is the appropriate infection control measure for C. difficile to prevent the spread of infection. While wearing a face shield may be necessary for procedures that generate splashes or sprays, it is not the primary precaution for C. difficile. Negative pressure rooms are typically used for airborne infections, not for C. difficile. Using an alcohol-based hand rub is important for hand hygiene but is not specific to managing C. difficile infection.

5. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin?

• A. INR 1.5
• B. aPTT 60 seconds
• C. Platelets 150,000/mm³
• D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for a clot to form, and a therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 60-80 seconds. An INR of 1.5 is not related to heparin therapy, as it is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count and potassium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

Similar Questions