ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. This medication will increase your potassium levels.
- B. You should take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
- C. This medication will decrease your blood glucose levels.
- D. You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in the teaching for a client with a new prescription for furosemide is that the client should take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause gastrointestinal upset, so taking it with food can help reduce this side effect and improve medication tolerance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not increase potassium levels, decrease blood glucose levels, or require an increase in the intake of potassium-rich foods. Therefore, the most important teaching point for the client is to take furosemide with food.
2. What is the best intervention for a patient with constipation?
- A. Administer a stool softener
- B. Encourage fluid intake
- C. Provide a high-fiber diet
- D. Administer a laxative
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging fluid intake is the best intervention for a patient with constipation. Fluids help soften stools, making them easier to pass. While stool softeners and laxatives can also help with constipation, they are more of a short-term solution and may not address the root cause. A high-fiber diet is beneficial for preventing constipation in the long run, but in the immediate situation of constipation, fluid intake is key.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV
- B. Administer a hypotonic IV solution
- C. Encourage oral fluid intake
- D. Restrict oral fluid intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a sodium level of 125 mEq/L (hyponatremia), the nurse should administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV to help increase sodium levels. Choice B, administering a hypotonic IV solution, would further decrease the sodium level. Choice C, encouraging oral fluid intake, is contraindicated as it can dilute the sodium concentration further. Choice D, restricting oral fluid intake, could worsen the client's condition by leading to dehydration and further electrolyte imbalances.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Yellow-tinged vision.
- C. Constipation.
- D. Hypertension.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity due to its effect on the eyes. It can cause a yellow or green visual halo around objects. Bradycardia, constipation, and hypertension are not typical signs of digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia may be a sign of digoxin's therapeutic effect in heart failure, while constipation and hypertension are not commonly associated with digoxin toxicity.
5. What is the primary action when caring for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?
- A. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing
- B. Provide wound debridement
- C. Change the dressing daily
- D. Apply moist gauze to the ulcer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This type of dressing helps maintain a moist environment that is conducive to healing in stage 3 pressure ulcers. Providing wound debridement (choice B) is more suitable for higher stages of pressure ulcers where there is necrotic tissue. Changing the dressing daily (choice C) may be necessary but is not the primary action for a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Applying moist gauze (choice D) is not the recommended approach as it does not provide the same benefits as a hydrocolloid dressing.
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