ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Grilled chicken.
- B. Fresh fruit.
- C. White bread.
- D. Cheddar cheese.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis who is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid vitamin K-rich foods.
- B. I will avoid using aspirin while on this medication.
- C. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
- D. I will increase my intake of leafy greens.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Warfarin's effectiveness is reduced by high intake of vitamin K-rich foods, so increasing their intake would contradict the treatment plan. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate statements for a client on warfarin therapy. Avoiding vitamin K-rich foods helps maintain the medication's effectiveness, avoiding aspirin reduces the risk of bleeding, and monitoring blood pressure is essential for overall health monitoring.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Check the residual volume.
- B. Flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
- D. Warm the formula to body temperature.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is the priority action before administering an enteral feeding through an NG tube. This position helps prevent aspiration by promoting proper flow and digestion of the feeding. Checking the residual volume, flushing the tube, and warming the formula are important steps but come after ensuring the client is in the correct position to minimize the risk of complications.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the history of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which condition in the client's history is a contraindication?
- A. Hyperthyroidism.
- B. Thrombophlebitis.
- C. Diverticulosis.
- D. Hypocalcemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication for the use of combination oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not typically contraindications for using combination oral contraceptives, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
- B. Heart rate of 88/min
- C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
- D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a urine output of 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of dehydration or kidney impairment postoperatively. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Choices A, B, and D are within normal parameters for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery and do not raise immediate concerns. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing is an expected finding in the early postoperative period, a heart rate of 88/min is within the normal range, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is also within normal limits.
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