ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?
- A. Shave the hair at the insertion site.
- B. Cleanse the site with povidone-iodine.
- C. Wear sterile gloves when changing the dressing.
- D. Change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action to prevent infection when caring for a client with a new peripheral IV catheter is to change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours. Shaving the hair at the insertion site can actually increase the risk of infection by causing microabrasions in the skin. While cleansing the site with povidone-iodine is important before insertion, it is not necessary to continue doing so once the IV is in place. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the dressing is crucial for maintaining aseptic technique but does not directly prevent infection related to the IV site itself.
2. A client at risk for osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about dietary measures to increase calcium intake. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Carrots
- B. Cottage cheese
- C. Bananas
- D. Broccoli
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Broccoli. Broccoli is high in calcium, making it a suitable recommendation for clients at risk for osteoporosis. Carrots, Cottage cheese, and Bananas are not significant sources of calcium compared to broccoli, and therefore, they are not the best choices to increase calcium intake.
3. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?
- A. Monitor INR
- B. Monitor platelet count
- C. Monitor sodium levels
- D. Monitor calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will increase my intake of bananas.
- B. I will limit my intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. I will increase my intake of protein-rich foods.
- D. I will increase my intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods like bananas (choice A), protein-rich foods (choice C), or dairy products (choice D) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in these clients. Bananas, protein-rich foods, and dairy products are all high in potassium, which is detrimental for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
5. A client with preeclampsia and postpartum hemorrhage is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications is contraindicated?
- A. Methylergonovine
- B. Misoprostol
- C. Dinoprostone
- D. Oxytocin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Methylergonovine. Methylergonovine is contraindicated in clients with preeclampsia due to the risk of hypertension. Misoprostol (choice B), Dinoprostone (choice C), and Oxytocin (choice D) are appropriate medications for managing postpartum hemorrhage and are not contraindicated in clients with preeclampsia.
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