ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?
- A. Shave the hair at the insertion site.
- B. Cleanse the site with povidone-iodine.
- C. Wear sterile gloves when changing the dressing.
- D. Change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action to prevent infection when caring for a client with a new peripheral IV catheter is to change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours. Shaving the hair at the insertion site can actually increase the risk of infection by causing microabrasions in the skin. While cleansing the site with povidone-iodine is important before insertion, it is not necessary to continue doing so once the IV is in place. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the dressing is crucial for maintaining aseptic technique but does not directly prevent infection related to the IV site itself.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?
- A. Crackles in the lung bases
- B. Blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 26/min
- D. Heart rate of 86/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26/min is a sign of respiratory distress and should be reported promptly in a client with pneumonia. Rapid breathing can indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which may lead to respiratory failure. Crackles in the lung bases are common in pneumonia but may not be as urgent as a high respiratory rate. A blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg is slightly low but may not be immediately life-threatening. A heart rate of 86/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not the most critical finding to report.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
- B. Respiratory rate of 16/min.
- C. Heart rate of 90/min.
- D. WBC count of 15,000/mm3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm3 is elevated, which may indicate infection, a common concern postoperatively. An elevated WBC count suggests the body is fighting an infection, and prompt reporting to the provider is essential for further evaluation and treatment. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the immediate postoperative period, respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range, and a heart rate of 90/min is also within an acceptable range postoperatively. Therefore, these findings do not raise immediate concerns that necessitate reporting to the provider.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer sodium bicarbonate
- B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate
- C. Administer calcium gluconate
- D. Administer calcium carbonate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate. This medication promotes potassium excretion and helps lower serum potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia, which is indicated by a high potassium level. Sodium bicarbonate (choice A) is not used to treat hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate (choice C) and calcium carbonate (choice D) are used to manage hyperkalemia by stabilizing cell membranes but are not the initial treatment choice for lowering potassium levels.
5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid eating spicy foods.
- B. Eat three large meals each day.
- C. Lie down after meals.
- D. Increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can trigger GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating three large meals each day can exacerbate GERD symptoms by putting pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, lying down after meals can worsen reflux due to gravity, and increasing dairy product intake may lead to higher fat consumption, which can also trigger GERD symptoms.
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