Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate 68/min.
• B. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Vision changes.
• D. Respiratory rate 18/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Vision changes are a common sign of digoxin toxicity, which can be serious and should be reported to the provider immediately. Changes in heart rate, blood pressure, or respiratory rate are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting vision changes to ensure prompt assessment and intervention.

2. A client has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Take this medication with food to reduce stomach upset.
• C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking this medication.
• D. Chew the medication for faster absorption.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction when taking alendronate is to remain upright for 30 minutes after administration. This helps prevent esophageal irritation, a known side effect of the medication. Option A is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Option B is incorrect as taking alendronate with food decreases its absorption. Option D is incorrect as alendronate should be swallowed whole with a full glass of water and not chewed.

3. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which result is reportable?

• A. Herpes simplex
• B. Human papillomavirus
• C. Candidiasis
• D. Chlamydia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlamydia is a reportable sexually transmitted infection. Reporting cases of Chlamydia to the health department is crucial for disease surveillance, contact tracing, and implementing public health interventions. Herpes simplex, human papillomavirus, and candidiasis are not typically reportable infections, as they do not pose the same public health risks as Chlamydia.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has an arteriovenous fistula. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report?

• A. Thrill upon palpation.
• B. Absence of a bruit.
• C. Distended blood vessels.
• D. Swishing sound upon auscultation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of a bruit. In a client with an arteriovenous fistula, the presence of a bruit (a humming sound) is an expected finding due to the high-pressure flow of blood through the fistula. Therefore, the absence of a bruit suggests a complication, such as thrombosis or stenosis, which should be reported for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a thrill upon palpation, distended blood vessels, and a swishing sound upon auscultation are expected findings in a client with an arteriovenous fistula and do not necessarily indicate a complication.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a closed head injury and has an intraventricular catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to reduce the risk for infection?

• A. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees.
• B. Administer IV antibiotics prophylactically.
• C. Change the catheter insertion site every 24 hours.
• D. Monitor the insertion site for redness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the insertion site for redness. This intervention helps detect signs of infection early in clients with intraventricular catheters. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees is important for managing intracranial pressure but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Administering IV antibiotics prophylactically is not recommended as a routine practice due to the risk of antibiotic resistance and should only be done based on culture results. Changing the catheter insertion site every 24 hours is unnecessary and increases the risk of introducing new pathogens.

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