ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate 68/min.
- B. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg.
- C. Vision changes.
- D. Respiratory rate 18/min.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Vision changes are a common sign of digoxin toxicity, which can be serious and should be reported to the provider immediately. Changes in heart rate, blood pressure, or respiratory rate are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting vision changes to ensure prompt assessment and intervention.
2. A client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of metformin. Which of the following client statements demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take this medication with my meals.
- B. I will take this medication at the same time every day.
- C. I will avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. I will expect to experience weight gain while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because clients taking metformin should avoid alcohol as it increases the risk of lactic acidosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is not specific to metformin but rather a general recommendation for some medications. Choice B is a good practice for medication adherence but does not relate specifically to metformin. Choice D is inaccurate as weight gain is not an expected side effect of metformin.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Increased respiratory rate
- D. Tracheal deviation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a common finding in clients with ARDS as the body attempts to compensate for impaired gas exchange. Barrel-shaped chest (Choice A) is associated with conditions like COPD, not ARDS. Bradycardia (Choice B) is unlikely in ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanisms to improve oxygenation. Tracheal deviation (Choice D) is not typically seen in ARDS and is more suggestive of other respiratory conditions.
4. A nurse is teaching a client about self-administration of enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Administer the injection into the muscle of your thigh.
- B. Pinch the skin before inserting the needle.
- C. Rub the injection site after administering the medication.
- D. Administer the injection into the fat tissue of your abdomen.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for self-administration of enoxaparin is to inject it into the fat tissue of the abdomen for proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect as enoxaparin should not be injected into the muscle. Choice B is unnecessary for enoxaparin administration. Choice C is incorrect as rubbing the injection site after administering the medication is not recommended.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates bradycardia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. This situation requires immediate intervention to address the underlying cause. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever, fetal anemia, and chorioamnionitis may have other effects on the fetus but are not primary causes of bradycardia in this context.
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