a nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing a deep vein thrombosis dvt which of the following interventions should the nurse implemen
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. Sequential compression devices help prevent venous stasis and reduce the risk of DVT by promoting blood flow in the legs. Massaging the client's legs every 2 hours (choice A) may dislodge a clot if present, leading to a higher risk of embolism. Instructing the client to sit with the legs crossed (choice B) can impede blood flow and increase the risk of DVT. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (choice C) is not indicated for preventing DVT, as antibiotics are used to treat infections caused by bacteria, not to prevent blood clots.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication of hypocalcemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tingling in the fingers. Tingling in the fingers is a common sign of hypocalcemia, often seen after a thyroidectomy. Hypocalcemia can occur post-thyroidectomy due to inadvertent damage or removal of the parathyroid glands which regulate calcium levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Positive Chvostek's sign is a clinical sign of hypocalcemia but is usually assessed as facial muscle twitching, not tingling in the fingers. Positive Kernig's sign is a test for meningitis, not related to hypocalcemia.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Start the transfusion with 0.9% sodium chloride. 0.9% sodium chloride is the only IV solution that is compatible with blood products and should be used to prime the tubing before a transfusion. Choice A is incorrect because vital signs should be monitored more frequently, typically every 15 minutes at the beginning of the transfusion. Choice C is incorrect as blood transfusions are usually administered over 2-4 hours, not 6 hours. Choice D is incorrect as the first 500 mL of blood should be infused slowly over 1-2 hours to monitor for any adverse reactions.

4. A charge nurse is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses about the correct use of restraints. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Keeping the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated is an appropriate use of restraints to prevent the child from falling, which is an essential safety measure. Placing a belt restraint on a school-age child with seizures (choice A) is not recommended as it can be dangerous during a seizure. Securing wrist restraints to the bed rails for an adolescent (choice B) may cause harm and should not be done routinely. Applying elbow immobilizers to an infant receiving a cleft lip injury (choice C) is not a standard practice for managing this condition and would not be appropriate.

5. What is the appropriate action when a patient experiences an allergic reaction to a medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for a severe allergic reaction as it helps to constrict blood vessels, increase heart rate, and open airways, thereby improving breathing and circulation. Discontinuing the medication may not be sufficient to manage a severe allergic reaction as the allergen is already in the patient's system. Corticosteroids and antihistamines can be considered as complementary treatments but are not the primary immediate intervention required for a severe allergic reaction.

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