Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider report?

• A. Serum calcium 8.5 mg/dL
• B. Blood glucose level 120 mg/dL
• C. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L
• D. Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL. A low serum albumin level indicates protein deficiency, which can be a complication of TPN therapy and requires prompt intervention. The other laboratory findings provided (serum calcium 8.5 mg/dL, blood glucose level 120 mg/dL, and serum sodium 138 mEq/L) are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate complications related to TPN therapy.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.

3. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

• A. Administer bronchodilators
• B. Monitor oxygen saturation
• C. Provide supplemental oxygen
• D. Start IV fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators. In an acute asthma attack, the priority is to open the airways and improve airflow. Bronchodilators like albuterol are crucial in providing immediate relief to the patient. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) is important but administering bronchodilators takes precedence in managing the acute attack. Providing supplemental oxygen (choice C) may be necessary but addressing the airway obstruction with bronchodilators is the priority. Starting IV fluids (choice D) is not the priority in an acute asthma attack unless specifically indicated for other reasons such as dehydration.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Massage the affected extremity to promote circulation.
• B. Elevate the affected extremity.
• C. Apply cold packs to the affected extremity.
• D. Perform range-of-motion exercises on the affected extremity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with DVT is to apply cold packs to the affected extremity. Cold packs can help reduce swelling and pain by constricting blood vessels. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot and worsen the condition. Elevating the affected extremity helps with blood flow but is not the priority intervention for DVT. Performing range-of-motion exercises on the affected extremity can also dislodge a clot and is contraindicated.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?

• A. Calcium carbonate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Epoetin alfa
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.

Similar Questions