a patient receiving chemotherapy has developed neutropenia what should the nurse include in the care plan to reduce infection risk
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A patient receiving chemotherapy has developed neutropenia. What should be included in the care plan to reduce infection risk?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient receiving chemotherapy develops neutropenia, the priority is to reduce the risk of infection. Using reverse isolation precautions is crucial in this situation to protect the patient from exposure to pathogens. Monitoring temperature daily (Choice A) is important but is not as effective as isolating the patient. Limiting visitors (Choice B) can help reduce the risk of exposure, but reverse isolation is a more stringent measure. Administering antibiotics prophylactically (Choice C) is not recommended unless there is a specific indication, as it can contribute to antibiotic resistance.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a patient with dehydration. Which finding indicates the patient's condition is worsening?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tachycardia and low blood pressure are indicative of worsening dehydration in a patient. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to decreased intravascular volume, while low blood pressure reflects inadequate perfusion due to decreased fluid levels. Bradycardia and shallow respirations are not typical findings in worsening dehydration, and clear lung sounds do not directly correlate with the severity of dehydration.

3. Which question is essential during screening for alcohol use disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The essential question during screening for alcohol use disorder is asking about blackouts or loss of consciousness, which can be indicative of excessive drinking and related to alcohol use disorder. Choices A, C, and D are not as directly related to screening for alcohol use disorder. Employment status (Choice A) is not a primary question in alcohol use disorder screening. Sleep quality (Choice C) and family history of substance use (Choice D) may be relevant but are not as crucial as inquiring about blackouts or loss of consciousness.

4. A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client pulseless. The client's living will requests no resuscitation be performed, but the provider has not written the prescription. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to begin CPR. In the absence of a written DNR order by the provider, the nurse is ethically and legally obligated to initiate CPR to attempt to save the client's life. Administering emergency medications without CPR (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for life-saving measures. Calling the provider for a DNR order (Choice C) may cause a delay in providing necessary resuscitative measures. Respecting the client's wishes and not attempting CPR (Choice D) goes against the nurse's duty to provide immediate life-saving interventions in the absence of a DNR order.

5. A client just had a flexible bronchoscopy. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a flexible bronchoscopy, it is essential to withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns. This precaution helps prevent aspiration, as the gag reflex protects the airway from foreign material. Irrigating the client's throat every 4 hours (Choice A) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of aspiration. Suctioning the client's oropharynx frequently (Choice C) can cause trauma and is not indicated unless there is a specific medical reason for it. Having the client refrain from talking for 24 hours (Choice D) is not necessary after a flexible bronchoscopy.

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