Nursing Elites

1. A patient receiving chemotherapy has developed neutropenia. What should be included in the care plan to reduce infection risk?

• A. Monitor temperature daily
• B. Limit visitors
• C. Administer antibiotics prophylactically
• D. Use reverse isolation precautions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient receiving chemotherapy develops neutropenia, the priority is to reduce the risk of infection. Using reverse isolation precautions is crucial in this situation to protect the patient from exposure to pathogens. Monitoring temperature daily (Choice A) is important but is not as effective as isolating the patient. Limiting visitors (Choice B) can help reduce the risk of exposure, but reverse isolation is a more stringent measure. Administering antibiotics prophylactically (Choice C) is not recommended unless there is a specific indication, as it can contribute to antibiotic resistance.

2. A nurse is evaluating a client receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following lab values requires immediate intervention?

• A. Sodium 135 mEq/L
• B. Potassium 6.5 mEq/L
• C. Calcium 9 mg/dL
• D. Chloride 98 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Potassium levels above 5.0 mEq/L can lead to cardiac issues, and a level of 6.5 mEq/L requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in the context of hemodialysis monitoring.

3. What are the clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock, and how should a nurse respond?

• A. Hypertension, bradycardia, and oliguria
• B. Bradycardia, hypertension, and peripheral edema
• C. Tachypnea, cool skin, and confusion
• D. Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output are classic clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock. In hypovolemic shock, the body tries to compensate for low blood volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain cardiac output, leading to hypotension and decreased urine output. Prompt fluid replacement is necessary to restore intravascular volume. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent the typical manifestations of hypovolemic shock.

4. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being cared for by a nurse. What is the most appropriate action to improve the patient's oxygenation?

• A. Encourage the patient to use incentive spirometry.
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula as prescribed.
• C. Assist the patient with coughing and deep breathing exercises.
• D. Position the patient in a high Fowler's position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen via nasal cannula as prescribed is the most appropriate action to improve the patient's oxygenation in COPD. Oxygen therapy helps maintain adequate oxygen levels in the blood, which is crucial for managing COPD. Encouraging the use of incentive spirometry, assisting with coughing and deep breathing exercises, and positioning the patient in high Fowler's position are all beneficial interventions, but administering oxygen is the priority for immediate oxygenation support in COPD.

5. A client with tuberculosis is about to start combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? (SATA)

• A. Acyclovir
• B. Pyrazinamide
• C. Isoniazid
• D. Rifampin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pyrazinamide. In the treatment of tuberculosis, a combination drug therapy is usually employed. Pyrazinamide and rifampin are two key drugs used in this regimen. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used for herpes infections, not for tuberculosis. Isoniazid is another medication used in tuberculosis treatment, but in this case, the question asked for medications to administer, and the correct choices should be those commonly used in tuberculosis combination therapy.

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