the emergency department has been notified of a potential bioterrorism attack which action by the nurse is priority
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN

1. The emergency department has been notified of a potential bioterrorism attack. Which action by the nurse is priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a potential bioterrorism attack, the priority for the nurse is to manage all patients using standard precautions. This approach ensures the safety of both patients and healthcare providers by preventing the spread of potential bioterrorism-related illnesses. Option A is incorrect because managing patient care and safety through standard precautions takes precedence. Option B is incorrect as patient transport should also be done while adhering to infection control measures. Option C is incorrect as monitoring for specific symptoms is important but not the priority when all patients need to be managed with standard precautions.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the notes written by a previous shift. Which documentation reflects proper guidelines?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Proper documentation should include objective observations and detailed notes to ensure continuity of care. Choice A is incorrect because incomplete entries can lead to gaps in information and compromise patient care. Choice C is not completely accurate as corrections should be made in a manner that does not obscure the original entry but does not necessarily require a signature. Choice D is incorrect as entries should ideally be corrected by the original author to maintain accountability and accuracy.

4. Which nursing action will most likely increase a patient's risk for developing a health care-associated infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using a clean technique for inserting a urinary catheter increases the risk for healthcare-associated infections. Invasive procedures like catheter insertion require a sterile technique to prevent introducing pathogens into the urinary tract. Choices A and B demonstrate appropriate infection control measures by emphasizing the use of sterile or aseptic techniques. Choice D represents an incorrect technique that can lead to the introduction of bacteria from the rectum into the urinary tract, potentially causing infections.

5. A community nurse is instructing a group of newly licensed nurses about diseases that require airborne precautions. Which of the following diseases should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Varicella. Varicella (chickenpox) is a disease that requires airborne precautions to prevent its spread. Airborne precautions are necessary to prevent transmission of pathogens that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Rubella, pertussis, and influenza do not require airborne precautions. Rubella and pertussis require droplet precautions, while influenza requires droplet and contact precautions. Therefore, Varicella is the only disease in the list that necessitates airborne precautions.

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