ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A 52-year-old client with a history of angina has been prescribed transdermal nitroglycerin. Which of the following adverse effects is not associated with this therapy?
- A. Tolerance
- B. Orthostatic hypotension
- C. Headache
- D. Productive cough
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Productive cough. Nitroglycerin therapy can lead to adverse effects such as tolerance, orthostatic hypotension, and headache. However, it is not known to cause a productive cough. Tolerance may develop over time, requiring dose adjustments. Orthostatic hypotension can occur due to vasodilation effects, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Headache is a common side effect due to vasodilation of cranial blood vessels. Productive cough is not a recognized adverse effect associated with transdermal nitroglycerin therapy.
2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine to an adult client. Which of the following is a contraindication to this vaccine?
- A. The possibility of pregnancy within 4 weeks
- B. Client allergy to strawberries
- C. Client history of genital herpes
- D. The possibility of overseas travel in the next month
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pregnancy or the possibility of pregnancy within 4 weeks is a contraindication for receiving the MMR vaccine. Choice B, client allergy to strawberries, is not a contraindication to the MMR vaccine. Choice C, client history of genital herpes, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice D, the possibility of overseas travel in the next month, is not a contraindication to the MMR vaccine.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review to evaluate the therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. aPTT
- B. INR
- C. Serum glucose
- D. Bilirubin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the most reliable test for evaluating the therapeutic effects of warfarin therapy. INR measures the clotting ability of the blood and helps determine if the dosage of warfarin is within the therapeutic range. Choice A, aPTT, is not typically used to monitor the effects of warfarin. Choice C, Serum glucose, and choice D, Bilirubin, are not relevant to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.
4. A client prescribed lisinopril for hypertension may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. Weight gain, dry mouth, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed amoxicillin. Which of the following client history findings requires the nurse to clarify the medication prescription?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Peptic ulcer disease
- C. Asthma
- D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with a history of asthma should avoid amoxicillin due to potential hypersensitivity reactions. Amoxicillin can trigger asthma exacerbations in some individuals. Hypertension (choice A), peptic ulcer disease (choice B), and gastroesophageal reflux disease (choice D) are not contraindications for amoxicillin use, so they do not require the nurse to clarify the medication prescription in this case.
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