Nursing Elites

1. A female patient is concerned about the side effects of oral contraceptives. What should the nurse explain as a common side effect?

• A. Increased energy levels
• B. Decreased libido
• C. Weight gain
• D. Hair loss

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight gain. Weight gain is a common side effect of oral contraceptives due to hormonal changes. It is essential for healthcare providers to inform patients about this possibility to manage expectations. Choice A, increased energy levels, is not a common side effect of oral contraceptives. Choice B, decreased libido, can be a side effect for some individuals but is not as common as weight gain. Choice D, hair loss, is not typically associated with oral contraceptives. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to address the patient's concerns by discussing the more prevalent side effects like weight gain.

2. A male patient is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer while receiving finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse explain about this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screening is important.
• D. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. Studies have demonstrated that finasteride can reduce the incidence of prostate cancer. However, it is still recommended to have regular screening to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect as finasteride has shown to have a positive effect on reducing prostate cancer risk. Choice C is inaccurate because finasteride decreases, not increases, the risk of prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as regular screening is still necessary despite the risk reduction associated with finasteride.

3. A 17-year-old woman has come to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago. What medication is the clinician most likely to prescribe?

• A. Levonorgestrel (Plan B)
• B. Mifepristone (RU-486)
• C. Ulipristal acetate (ella)
• D. Estradiol (Estrace)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levonorgestrel (Plan B). Levonorgestrel is the most commonly prescribed medication for emergency contraception within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. It is effective when taken within 72 hours after intercourse, with better efficacy the sooner it is taken. Choice B, Mifepristone (RU-486), is not indicated for emergency contraception but is used for medical abortion. Choice C, Ulipristal acetate (ella), is another option for emergency contraception that is effective up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse. Choice D, Estradiol (Estrace), is not used for emergency contraception.

4. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

• A. Hematocrit and hemoglobin
• B. ALT and AST
• C. Urine culture and sensitivity
• D. Erythrocyte count and differential

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

5. A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury resulting in cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?

• A. Adaptation
• B. Pathologic calcification
• C. Apoptosis
• D. Necrosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Necrosis. Necrosis is the process of cell death characterized by cell swelling, breakdown of organelles, and eventual rupture, often following ischemic injury like a heart attack. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adaptation refers to the ability of cells to adjust to changes in their environment. Pathologic calcification is the abnormal deposition of calcium salts in tissues. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death that occurs in a controlled, orderly manner.

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