ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. What causes atherosclerotic plaques to form initially?
- A. Interruption of blood flow to the brain
- B. Injury to the coronary artery endothelium
- C. Administration of statin medications
- D. Poor dietary modifications
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Atherosclerotic plaques form initially due to injury to the coronary artery endothelium, which triggers a cascade of events leading to plaque buildup. Choice A is incorrect because atherosclerotic plaques do not form due to an interruption of blood flow to the brain. Choice C is incorrect as statin medications are actually used to help lower cholesterol and reduce the risk of plaque formation. Choice D is incorrect as poor dietary modifications can contribute to atherosclerosis but are not the initial cause of plaque formation.
2. Although stress exposure initiates integrated responses by multiple systems, which system first activates the most important changes?
- A. Pulmonary
- B. Gastrointestinal
- C. Neuroendocrine
- D. Cardiovascular
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the Neuroendocrine system. When the body is exposed to stress, the neuroendocrine system plays a crucial role in initiating the body's response. This system, particularly through the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis, triggers a cascade of physiological responses to stress. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while other systems like the cardiovascular and gastrointestinal systems also respond to stress, the neuroendocrine system is primarily responsible for the initial and significant changes in the body's stress response.
3. A 60-year-old man presents with painless hematuria. Which of the following should be the next step in the evaluation?
- A. Urinalysis
- B. Renal ultrasound
- C. Cystoscopy
- D. Intravenous pyelogram
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a 60-year-old man presenting with painless hematuria, the next step in the evaluation should be cystoscopy. Cystoscopy is recommended to assess the cause of hematuria, particularly to rule out bladder cancer, which is more common in older individuals. Urinalysis (Choice A) can provide initial information but may not definitively diagnose the underlying cause. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and intravenous pyelogram (Choice D) are imaging studies that may be considered later in the evaluation process but are not the initial step for painless hematuria.
4. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is frustrated by tremors associated with the disease. How should the nurse explain why these tremors occur? Due to the demyelination of neurons that occurs in MS:
- A. there is an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine, leading to tremors.
- B. there is a disruption in nerve impulse conduction, causing tremors.
- C. muscles are unable to receive impulses, resulting in tremors.
- D. the reflex arc is disrupted, leading to muscle tremors.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In multiple sclerosis (MS), demyelination of neurons disrupts nerve impulse conduction. This disruption in nerve impulses can lead to tremors, explaining why the client experiences tremors in MS. Choice A is incorrect because tremors in MS are primarily due to nerve conduction issues, not an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the process; the issue lies in nerve impulses, not the muscle's ability to receive them. Choice D is incorrect as the primary cause of tremors in MS is the disruption in nerve impulse conduction, not the reflex arc being disrupted.
5. A patient with an 18 pack per year history presents to a family practice clinic complaining of painless hoarseness and inability to clear mucus. A biopsy of respiratory tract cells is taken and shows that these cells have been replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells. The nurse knows this type of change is referred to as:
- A. Dysplasia
- B. Metaplasia
- C. Hyperplasia
- D. Coagulation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Metaplasia is the replacement of one type of cell with another, which can occur in response to chronic irritation, such as from smoking. In this case, the respiratory tract cells being replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells indicate metaplasia. Dysplasia refers to abnormal development or growth of cells, not replacement; hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells, not a replacement; and coagulation is a process related to blood clotting, not cell replacement.
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