ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A patient underwent an open cholecystectomy 4 days ago, and her incision is now in the proliferative phase of healing. The nurse knows that the next step in the process of wound healing is:
- A. Inflammation
- B. Maturation
- C. Remodeling
- D. Coagulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the context of wound healing, after the proliferative phase comes the remodeling phase. During the remodeling phase, the wound gains strength as collagen fibers reorganize, and the scar matures. Inflammation is the initial phase of healing, where the body responds to injury with redness, swelling, and warmth. Maturation is the final stage where the scar tissue continues to undergo changes but is not the immediate next step after the proliferative phase. Coagulation is the process of blood clot formation and is not a phase in wound healing.
2. A 60-year-old male patient presents with severe and persistent pain in his left leg and hip that worsens with activity. After further evaluation, the patient is diagnosed with osteosarcoma. Which of the following is true about osteosarcoma?
- A. It is more common in children and young adults.
- B. Early diagnosis improves the prognosis.
- C. It is frequently located in the leg bones.
- D. All of the above are true.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that can be found in any bone but is most commonly located in the long bones of the legs. While it is more prevalent in children and young adults, it can also occur in older individuals like the 60-year-old male patient in this case. Early diagnosis is crucial for a better prognosis in osteosarcoma cases. Therefore, all the statements provided are true regarding osteosarcoma, making option D the correct answer. Option A is accurate as osteosarcoma is more common in children and young adults. Option B is correct as early diagnosis improves the prognosis. Option C is accurate as osteosarcoma is frequently located in the leg bones.
3. What important point should the nurse emphasize about taking oral contraceptives consistently?
- A. Oral contraceptives must be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
- B. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid side effects at night.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken with food to enhance absorption.
- D. Oral contraceptives can be skipped occasionally without significant consequences.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. It is crucial for patients taking oral contraceptives to take them at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels, which is essential for their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of the medication is more about consistency than avoiding side effects at night. Choice C is incorrect as oral contraceptives do not necessarily need to be taken with food for absorption. Choice D is incorrect because skipping oral contraceptives occasionally can significantly reduce their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
4. Which manifestation of stress reflects the non-specific fight or flight response?
- A. Decreased pupillary light response
- B. Increased GI motility
- C. Decreased short-term memory
- D. Increased cardiopulmonary rates
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Increased cardiopulmonary rates.' The fight or flight response, activated by stress, is a non-specific physiological reaction that prepares the body to deal with perceived threats. In this response, the heart rate and breathing rate increase to supply more oxygen to muscles and vital organs, enabling a rapid response in dangerous situations. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because decreased pupillary light response, increased GI motility, and decreased short-term memory are not typical manifestations of the fight or flight response.
5. When educating a client about to undergo a pacemaker insertion, the nurse explains the normal phases of cardiac muscle tissue. During the repolarization phase, the nurse will stress that membranes must be repolarized before they can be re-excited. Within the cell, the nurse understands that:
- A. Potassium channels open while sodium channels close, causing repolarization to the resting state.
- B. The influx of calcium is the primary stimulus for the repolarization of cardiac tissue.
- C. Only the electrical activity within the heart will determine when repolarization occurs.
- D. The cell membranes need to stay calm, resulting in muscle tissue becoming refractory.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the repolarization phase of cardiac muscle tissue, potassium channels open while sodium channels close. This process is crucial for the cardiac muscle to return to its resting state after depolarization. Potassium moving out of the cell and sodium staying out helps reset the membrane potential and prepare the cell for the next depolarization phase. The influx of calcium is not the primary stimulus for repolarization in cardiac tissue; it is mainly involved in the depolarization phase. While electrical activity within the heart influences repolarization, the specific ion movements described in choice A are what physiologically drive repolarization. Cell membranes need to be in an active state during repolarization, not calm, to facilitate the necessary ion movements for muscle tissue to properly function.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access