a client arrives with symptoms of stroke what should the nurse assess first
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ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet

1. A client arrives with symptoms of stroke. What should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the level of consciousness is a critical first step in evaluating a potential stroke. Changes in the level of consciousness can indicate the severity and location of brain damage, helping to guide immediate interventions. Assessing blood pressure, pupil reaction, and heart rate are also important aspects of the assessment in a suspected stroke patient. However, the priority is to quickly determine the client's level of consciousness to assess their neurological status.

2. Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of exercise-induced asthma?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Bronchospasm after exercise.' Exercise-induced asthma involves the narrowing of the airways (bronchospasm) triggered by physical activity. This bronchospasm leads to symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because exercise-induced asthma is not primarily caused by an IgE-mediated inflammatory response to an antigen, bronchoconstriction after ingesting high-allergen foods, or increased mucus production due to a genetic mutation.

3. A patient taking an oral contraceptive missed one pill. What should the nurse teach the patient to do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient taking an oral contraceptive misses one pill, the correct action is to take two pills as soon as they remember and then continue the regular schedule. Option A is the correct answer because doubling up the dose helps maintain the effectiveness of the contraceptive. Option B is incorrect because taking only one pill after missing one may decrease contraceptive effectiveness. Option C is wrong as skipping the missed pill can also reduce effectiveness. Option D is inaccurate because taking two pills immediately is not necessary; the patient should take the missed pill as soon as remembered and then resume the regular dosing schedule.

4. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about the risks associated with this therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride, a type of androgen therapy, has been shown to reduce the risk of developing prostate cancer. It works by shrinking the prostate gland, which can help lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, while it may reduce the risk, regular screening is still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride does have an impact on reducing the risk of prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride does have an effect on reducing the risk of prostate cancer.

5. Which of the following best describes Cushing’s syndrome?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cushing’s syndrome is characterized by the excessive production of cortisol by the adrenal glands, not growth hormone (Choice A), insulin (Choice C), or ACTH (Choice D). The increased cortisol levels lead to a variety of symptoms associated with Cushing’s syndrome.

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