Nursing Elites

1. Following cardiothoracic surgery where controlled therapeutic hypothermia was utilized to decrease metabolic demands, the nurse responsible for monitoring this client postoperatively should be assessing for which potential complication related to cold cardioplegia?

• A. Thrombocytopenia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Coagulopathy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Coagulopathy is the correct answer. During therapeutic hypothermia, which lowers the body's temperature to reduce metabolic demands post-surgery, coagulopathy, or impaired blood clotting, is a potential complication due to the effects of cold cardioplegia. Thrombocytopenia (choice A) refers to a low platelet count and is not directly related to cold cardioplegia. Hypokalemia (choice B) is a condition of low potassium levels, and hyperglycemia (choice C) is high blood sugar levels, neither of which are primary complications of cold cardioplegia.

2. When assessing for potential signs and symptoms of cryptococcosis in a patient with HIV being treated with Amphotericin B, the nurse should prioritize what assessment?

• A. Neurological assessment
• B. Functional assessment
• C. Nutritional assessment
• D. Cardiac assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with cryptococcosis and HIV, neurological assessment should be prioritized because cryptococcosis commonly affects the central nervous system, leading to symptoms such as headache, confusion, and altered mental status. This assessment is crucial in monitoring for any neurological complications and guiding appropriate interventions. Functional assessment focuses on the patient's ability to perform activities of daily living and is not directly associated with cryptococcosis. Nutritional assessment is important for overall health but is not the priority when assessing for cryptococcosis. Cardiac assessment is not a priority in cryptococcosis as the primary manifestations are related to the central nervous system.

3. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

• A. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)
• B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)
• C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
• D. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

4. A patient is being administered chemotherapeutic agents for the treatment of cancer. Which of the following blood cells will be stimulated by the colony-stimulating factors in response to the effects of the chemotherapy?

• A. White blood cells
• B. Red blood cells
• C. Phagocytes
• D. Myocardial cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is White blood cells. Colony-stimulating factors stimulate the production of white blood cells in response to the effects of chemotherapy, as it can lead to myelosuppression. Red blood cells are not directly stimulated by colony-stimulating factors. Phagocytes are a type of white blood cell involved in immune responses, but they are not specifically stimulated by colony-stimulating factors. Myocardial cells are cardiac muscle cells and are not directly involved in the response to chemotherapy-induced myelosuppression.

5. A patient is starting on alendronate (Fosamax) for the treatment of osteoporosis. What instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
• B. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
• D. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water, and patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Taking the medication with milk (choice B) is not recommended as it may interfere with alendronate absorption. Taking it at bedtime (choice C) is not necessary and may increase the risk of esophageal irritation. Taking the medication with food (choice D) can reduce its absorption and effectiveness.

Similar Questions