the unique clinical presentation of a 3 month old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism which assessment question

ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which assessment question posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?

A. Has your child received all recommended vaccinations?
B. Has your child been feeding poorly or showing signs of constipation?
C. Has your child been exposed to any sick individuals?
D. Has your child been displaying signs of respiratory distress?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Poor feeding and constipation are common early symptoms of infant botulism, which is caused by a neurotoxin that impairs muscle function. Option A is unrelated to the presentation of botulism. Option C does not directly relate to the symptoms of botulism. Option D is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than the constellation of symptoms seen in botulism.

2. A hemoglobin electrophoresis is done to evaluate for sickle cell disease. The report reveals the person has HbAS, which means the person:

A. is normal with no sickle cell disease.
B. is a sickle cell carrier.
C. has sickle cell anemia.
D. has thalassemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the person is a sickle cell carrier. In HbAS, 'Hb' stands for hemoglobin, 'A' indicates normal hemoglobin, and 'S' indicates the sickle cell trait. Individuals with HbAS are carriers of the sickle cell trait but do not have sickle cell disease. Choice A is incorrect because having the sickle cell trait means carrying the gene for sickle cell disease. Choice C is incorrect as sickle cell anemia is a different condition where individuals have two copies of the abnormal hemoglobin gene, resulting in the disease. Choice D is incorrect because thalassemia is a separate genetic disorder affecting the production of hemoglobin, not related to the sickle cell trait.

3. What is a characteristic of coronary artery disease (CAD)?

A. The build-up of infectious by-products in the lymph nodes
B. Insufficient delivery of oxygenated blood to the myocardium
C. Insufficient delivery of carbon dioxide to the lungs
D. The build-up of bile in the stomach and gallbladder

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct characteristic of coronary artery disease (CAD) is the insufficient delivery of oxygenated blood to the myocardium. CAD is a condition where the coronary arteries become narrowed or blocked, leading to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. This lack of oxygenated blood can result in chest pain, known as angina, and if a coronary artery becomes completely blocked, it can cause a heart attack. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A refers to an issue related to the lymphatic system, choice C is about gas exchange in the lungs, and choice D describes a problem with bile accumulation in the digestive system, none of which are characteristics of CAD.

4. A 54-year-old man presents with a temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F), a racing heart, fatigue, and an upset stomach after spending an afternoon building a deck on a very hot, humid day. The physician assessing the man is performing a differential diagnosis as part of her assessment. Which finding would suggest fever rather than hyperthermia as a cause of the elevation in the man's temperature?

A. Absence of sweating
B. Shivering
C. Lack of thirst
D. Increased heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shivering is a physiological response to fever, as the body attempts to generate heat to increase the internal temperature. Hyperthermia, on the other hand, does not involve shivering. Absence of sweating (choice A) is more indicative of hyperthermia, as the body struggles to cool down without sweating. Lack of thirst (choice C) can be seen in both fever and hyperthermia. Increased heart rate (choice D) can occur in both fever and hyperthermia due to the body's attempt to regulate temperature.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?

A. Take this medication 1 hour before sexual activity.
B. Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.
C. Seek immediate medical attention if you experience vision or hearing loss.
D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.