which of the following describes the pathophysiology of asthma
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ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. Which of the following accurately describes the pathophysiology of asthma?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Narrowing of the airway due to bronchoconstriction." In asthma, there is an inflammatory response that leads to bronchoconstriction, causing the airways to narrow and making it difficult to breathe. Choice A is incorrect as chronic inflammation is a feature of asthma but not the primary pathophysiological mechanism. Choice C is incorrect as damage to alveoli is more characteristic of conditions like emphysema. Choice D is incorrect as overproduction of mucus is a feature of chronic bronchitis, not asthma.

2. In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the inflammatory response predominantly involves:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the inflammatory response predominantly involves neutrophils. Neutrophils play a key role in COPD due to their involvement in initiating and sustaining the inflammatory process. Eosinophils are more commonly associated with asthma rather than COPD. Monocytes are less involved in the inflammatory response in COPD compared to neutrophils. The choice 'cells' is too broad and vague to be a specific answer in this context.

3. What is a critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen is that it may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. This is crucial information because tamoxifen is known to promote blood clot formation, and patients need to be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots to seek prompt medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with decreasing the risk of osteoporosis, causing hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms, or directly causing weight gain and fluid retention.

4. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What is a key contraindication that the nurse should review with the patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both act as vasodilators, and their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because having a history of hypertension, using antihypertensive medications, or having a history of peptic ulcer disease are not key contraindications for sildenafil use.

5. A 44-year-old man presents with muscle weakness and fatigue. He states that he has experienced difficulty climbing stairs and even holding his arms up to comb his hair. Which test is most likely to help confirm the diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Electromyography (EMG). EMG is commonly used to diagnose conditions involving muscle weakness and fatigue, such as myasthenia gravis. Nerve conduction studies primarily assess nerve function rather than muscle involvement. While a muscle biopsy can provide valuable information, EMG is more specific for evaluating muscle function in this context. A blood test for autoantibodies may be helpful in certain autoimmune conditions but is not the primary test for confirming the diagnosis based on the patient's symptoms of muscle weakness and fatigue.

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