which of the following describes the pathophysiology of asthma
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ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. Which of the following accurately describes the pathophysiology of asthma?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Narrowing of the airway due to bronchoconstriction." In asthma, there is an inflammatory response that leads to bronchoconstriction, causing the airways to narrow and making it difficult to breathe. Choice A is incorrect as chronic inflammation is a feature of asthma but not the primary pathophysiological mechanism. Choice C is incorrect as damage to alveoli is more characteristic of conditions like emphysema. Choice D is incorrect as overproduction of mucus is a feature of chronic bronchitis, not asthma.

2. A client has approached the nurse asking for advice on how to deal with his alcohol addiction. The nurse should tell the client that the only effective treatment for alcoholism is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: total abstinence. Total abstinence from alcohol is considered the most effective treatment for alcoholism. This approach eliminates the risk of relapse and helps individuals maintain sobriety. While psychotherapy can be beneficial in addressing underlying issues, total abstinence is crucial in overcoming alcohol addiction. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is a supportive group that can complement treatment, but it is not the only effective approach. Aversion therapy aims to create a negative association with alcohol but may not address the underlying causes of addiction, making total abstinence a more comprehensive and recommended approach.

3. When discussing the risks associated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) with a patient who has a history of coronary artery disease, what should the nurse emphasize?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in patients with a history of coronary artery disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT is actually known to decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Choice D is also incorrect as HRT may slightly increase the risk of breast cancer.

4. A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hemolytic anemia. Normocytic-normochromic anemia is a type of anemia characterized by normal-sized and normal-colored red blood cells. Hemolytic anemia is a condition where red blood cells are destroyed prematurely, leading to normocytic-normochromic anemia. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice A) is characterized by ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow. Pernicious anemia (Choice C) is due to vitamin B12 deficiency. Iron deficiency anemia (Choice D) is characterized by microcytic-hypochromic red blood cells.

5. A patient with a history of cardiovascular disease is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse emphasize regarding the long-term risks associated with HRT?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: HRT is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, particularly in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease.

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