a nurse is caring for a client who is taking furosemide for heart failure which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function, potentially due to Furosemide therapy. This finding can suggest inadequate renal perfusion and impaired drug clearance, necessitating immediate reporting to prevent further complications like electrolyte imbalances and worsening heart failure. Choice A: Weight loss may be expected in heart failure patients due to fluid retention, but it is not an immediate concern. Choice B: A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is slightly low but not a priority compared to the indication of kidney dysfunction. Choice C: A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the normal range, so it does not require immediate reporting.

2. An older adult client has a new prescription for Digoxin and takes multiple other medications. The nurse should recognize that concurrent use of which of the following medications places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium-channel blocker, can increase digoxin levels, leading to toxicity. When given together, the digoxin dosage may need adjustment, and the nurse should closely monitor the client's digoxin levels to prevent toxicity symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, and arrhythmias. The other choices, Phenytoin, Warfarin, and Aluminum hydroxide, do not significantly interact with Digoxin to cause toxicity. Phenytoin may reduce Digoxin levels, while Warfarin and Aluminum hydroxide have minimal interactions with Digoxin.

3. A healthcare professional is obtaining a medication history from a client who is to receive Imipenem-cilastatin IV to treat an infection. Which of the following medications the client also receives puts them at risk for a medication interaction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Valproic acid. Imipenem-cilastatin decreases the blood levels of valproic acid, an antiseizure medication, which can lead to increased seizure activity. Monitoring and adjusting the dosage of valproic acid may be necessary when co-administered with Imipenem-cilastatin to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D do not typically interact significantly with Imipenem-cilastatin and are not associated with a high risk of adverse interactions in this scenario.

4. A client has a new prescription for Captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Captopril should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. The client should be instructed to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to optimize its effectiveness. Taking it with food can reduce its absorption and efficacy.

5. A client has a new prescription for Sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include for a client prescribed Sucralfate is to take the medication on an empty stomach. Sucralfate works by forming a protective barrier over ulcers, which is most effective when the stomach is empty. Taking it with food or other medications may decrease its effectiveness. Instructing the client to take Sucralfate on an empty stomach helps ensure optimal therapeutic benefits. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing high-sodium foods is not related to Sucralfate therapy, taking the medication with a full glass of milk is not recommended as it may decrease its effectiveness, and the presence of black and tarry stools is not an expected outcome of Sucralfate.

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