Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
• B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function, potentially due to Furosemide therapy. This finding can suggest inadequate renal perfusion and impaired drug clearance, necessitating immediate reporting to prevent further complications like electrolyte imbalances and worsening heart failure. Choice A: Weight loss may be expected in heart failure patients due to fluid retention, but it is not an immediate concern. Choice B: A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is slightly low but not a priority compared to the indication of kidney dysfunction. Choice C: A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the normal range, so it does not require immediate reporting.

2. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Increased urination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation. Clients should monitor for this adverse effect characterized by swelling in the extremities. Muscle pain (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Verapamil. Dry cough (choice B) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors. Increased urination (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Verapamil. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring for peripheral edema.

3. A client asks a nurse about Feverfew. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. It is used to treat skin infections.
• B. It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.
• C. It can lessen the nasal congestion in the common cold.
• D. It can relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is B: 'It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.' Feverfew is known for reducing the frequency of migraine headaches, but it has not been proven to relieve an existing migraine headache. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Feverfew is not used to treat skin infections, lessen nasal congestion in the common cold, or relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.

4. A client is prescribed Atorvastatin. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. Blood glucose
• B. Creatine kinase
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Sodium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Creatine kinase should be monitored in clients taking Atorvastatin as it can indicate muscle damage, a serious adverse effect of statins. Elevated creatine kinase levels may suggest myopathy or rhabdomyolysis, which are potential complications of statin therapy.

5. A client has been taking Sertraline for the past 2 days. Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is developing Serotonin syndrome?

• A. Bruising
• B. Fever
• C. Abdominal pain
• D. Rash

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fever is a key symptom of serotonin syndrome, a potentially serious condition that can occur with the use of SSRIs like Sertraline. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by excessive levels of serotonin in the body, leading to symptoms such as fever, agitation, confusion, tremors, and sweating. If a client on Sertraline presents with fever, the nurse should consider the possibility of serotonin syndrome and take appropriate actions such as notifying the healthcare provider and monitoring the client closely. Bruising, abdominal pain, and rash are not typically associated with serotonin syndrome and are more likely to be indicative of other conditions or side effects.

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