ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client informs the nurse that she has difficulty swallowing tablets and struggles with liquid or chewable medications due to taste. What medication should the nurse request a prescription for when preparing to administer Penicillin V to treat the client's streptococcal infection?
- A. Fosfomycin
- B. Amoxicillin
- C. Nafcillin
- D. Cefaclor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Nafcillin is an appropriate alternative within the penicillin class for clients who have difficulty swallowing tablets or struggle with liquid or chewable medications. It is available for intramuscular (IM) or intravenous (IV) administration, offering options beyond oral formulations. Fosfomycin, Amoxicillin, and Cefaclor are not suitable alternatives for Penicillin V in this scenario as they belong to different classes of antibiotics and may not be as effective in treating streptococcal infections.
2. A client with Depression has a new prescription for Venlafaxine. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor this client? (Select all that apply)
- A. Cough
- B. Dizziness
- C. Decreased libido
- D. B and C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B and C.' Venlafaxine, a medication used to treat depression, can lead to adverse effects like dizziness and decreased libido. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for these potential side effects. Cough and alopecia are not typically associated with Venlafaxine. Therefore, choices A (Cough) and C (Decreased libido) are incorrect. Dizziness and decreased libido are the adverse effects that the nurse should focus on when monitoring a client on Venlafaxine treatment.
3. When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Cough
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes this cough as an adverse effect. It is important for the client to monitor for this symptom and notify their healthcare provider if it occurs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, diarrhea, and weight gain are not commonly associated adverse effects of Lisinopril.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes a flushing of the neck and tachycardia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Document that the client experienced an anaphylactic reaction to the medication.
- B. Change the IV infusion site.
- C. Decrease the infusion rate on the IV.
- D. Apply cold compresses to the neck area.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Flushing and tachycardia are signs of Red Man Syndrome, which can be mitigated by decreasing the infusion rate.
5. In caring for a client who received IV Verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and presents with a pulse rate of 98/min and blood pressure of 74/44 mm Hg, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following IV medications?
- A. Calcium gluconate
- B. Sodium bicarbonate
- C. Potassium chloride
- D. Magnesium sulfate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing severe hypotension due to Verapamil administration. The appropriate medication to counteract the vasodilation caused by Verapamil and reverse severe hypotension is Calcium gluconate, which should be administered slowly IV. Therefore, the correct choice is Calcium gluconate (Choice A). Sodium bicarbonate (Choice B) is not indicated for hypotension related to Verapamil use. Potassium chloride (Choice C) and Magnesium sulfate (Choice D) are not the appropriate medications to address the hypotension in this situation.
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