a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for sulfasalazine for the treatment of crohns disease which of the following instructions shou
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. A client has a new prescription for Sulfasalazine for the treatment of Crohn's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Expect orange-yellow discoloration of urine and skin.' Sulfasalazine can cause this harmless side effect, which does not require discontinuation of the medication. Option B is incorrect because Sulfasalazine is usually taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Option C is incorrect as a sore throat is not a common reason to stop the medication. Option D is not directly related to the side effects of Sulfasalazine.

2. A healthcare professional is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. Monitoring the patient's platelet count is essential because a decrease in platelet count can increase the risk of bleeding. By assessing the platelet count, the healthcare professional can detect any potential adverse effects related to the medication and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. White blood cell count, hemoglobin, and blood glucose levels are not directly affected by Clopidogrel, so they are not the primary values to monitor for potential adverse effects of this medication.

3. A client is taking Propylthiouracil. For which of the following adverse effects of this medication should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propylthiouracil is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism. One of the adverse effects of Propylthiouracil is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Since the medication works by decreasing thyroid hormone production, it can lead to hypothyroidism as a side effect, causing bradycardia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of bradycardia while taking Propylthiouracil. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because insomnia, heat intolerance, and weight loss are not typically associated adverse effects of Propylthiouracil.

4. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ondansetron. Ondansetron is a commonly used antiemetic for managing nausea and vomiting in clients undergoing chemotherapy. It works by blocking serotonin to reduce these symptoms effectively. Metoclopramide (choice B) is another antiemetic but is more commonly used for gastric motility disorders. Promethazine (choice C) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but ondansetron is often preferred for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting due to its efficacy and fewer side effects. Lorazepam (choice D) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and insomnia, not typically for managing nausea and vomiting in this context.

5. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for Osteoporosis. Which of the following tests should the client expect before beginning this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before initiating Calcitonin-salmon, a skin test for allergy to the medication may be performed to prevent anaphylactic reactions. Allergic reactions can occur due to sensitivities to the drug, particularly in individuals with fish allergies. Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to assess the client's potential allergic response to Calcitonin-salmon through a skin test. The other options are not relevant in this context. An ECG is not typically required before starting Calcitonin-salmon for Osteoporosis, nor is a Mantoux test or liver function tests.

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