Nursing Elites

1. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

2. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should be included by the nurse?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• C. Change positions slowly.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these potential adverse effects.

3. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?

• A. Valproic acid
• B. Quinidine
• C. Isoniazid
• D. Ethosuximide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cinchonism is associated with Quinidine, not Valproic acid, Isoniazid, or Ethosuximide. Cinchonism is characterized by symptoms such as tinnitus, dizziness, and headaches. Quinidine, being an antiarrhythmic agent, can lead to this condition as a side effect.

4. What should a patient avoid while taking Angiotensin-converting enzymes?

• A. Salt substitutes
• B. Foods high in potassium
• C. Foods high in sodium
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients taking Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should avoid salt substitutes because they can contain potassium chloride, which may lead to hyperkalemia. It is important to restrict potassium-rich foods while on ACE inhibitors, but the primary concern with salt substitutes is their potassium content.

5. A healthcare professional is educating a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. Report any signs of bleeding to your healthcare provider.
• C. Use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
• D. Use an electric razor to prevent cuts.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement that the healthcare professional should include when educating a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding to their healthcare provider. Bleeding can indicate excessive anticoagulation, which is a serious side effect of warfarin. Prompt reporting of bleeding symptoms is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While avoiding foods high in vitamin K may be important when taking warfarin due to its interaction with the medication, it is not the priority over reporting signs of bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush and electric razor are general precautions for individuals on anticoagulants but are not as critical as reporting bleeding symptoms.

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