a nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate iv continuous infusion which of the following findings should
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

2. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Prednisone?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prednisone is not a common treatment for testicular cancer. Prednisone is used in conditions like Cushing’s disease, lymphomas, and chronic leukemias due to its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties. However, testicular cancer treatment typically involves surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy, but not Prednisone.

3. A client informs the nurse that she has difficulty swallowing tablets and struggles with liquid or chewable medications due to taste. What medication should the nurse request a prescription for when preparing to administer Penicillin V to treat the client's streptococcal infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nafcillin is an appropriate alternative within the penicillin class for clients who have difficulty swallowing tablets or struggle with liquid or chewable medications. It is available for intramuscular (IM) or intravenous (IV) administration, offering options beyond oral formulations. Fosfomycin, Amoxicillin, and Cefaclor are not suitable alternatives for Penicillin V in this scenario as they belong to different classes of antibiotics and may not be as effective in treating streptococcal infections.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer Belimumab to a client with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring the client for hypersensitivity reactions is crucial when administering Belimumab due to its known potential for severe infusion reactions and anaphylaxis. The healthcare provider should closely observe the client during the administration to promptly identify and manage any hypersensitivity reactions that may occur. Choice A is incorrect because warming Belimumab is not necessary before administration. Choice B is incorrect as Belimumab should not be administered as an IV bolus over 5 minutes; it should be given as an IV infusion over a longer duration. Choice C is incorrect as Belimumab should not be diluted in a 5% dextrose and water solution.

5. A client requests information on the use of Feverfew. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is B: Feverfew is commonly used to decrease the frequency of migraine headaches. However, it is important to note that it has not been proven to relieve an existing migraine headache. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as Feverfew is not typically used for treating skin infections, lessening nasal congestion in the common cold, or relieving nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.

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