ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A client with angina asks about obtaining a prescription for sildenafil to treat erectile dysfunction. Which of the following medications is contraindicated with Sildenafil?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Isosorbide
- C. Clopidogrel
- D. Atorvastatin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Isosorbide is an organic nitrate used to manage angina. Concurrent use of sildenafil with organic nitrates, like isosorbide, is contraindicated due to the risk of fatal hypotension. It is essential for clients to avoid taking nitrate medications within 24 hours of using isosorbide to prevent serious complications.
2. What should a patient avoid while taking Angiotensin-converting enzymes?
- A. Salt substitutes
- B. Foods high in potassium
- C. Foods high in sodium
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients taking Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should avoid salt substitutes because they can contain potassium chloride, which may lead to hyperkalemia. It is important to restrict potassium-rich foods while on ACE inhibitors, but the primary concern with salt substitutes is their potassium content.
3. A client has a prescription for Amoxicillin. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Avoid taking the medication with milk.
- C. Expect your stools to turn clay-colored.
- D. Complete the entire course of therapy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Complete the entire course of therapy. It is crucial for clients to complete the entire course of amoxicillin therapy to ensure the infection is fully treated and to prevent antibiotic resistance. Prematurely stopping the antibiotic can lead to incomplete eradication of the infection, potentially causing it to return and be more difficult to treat. Choices A and B are not specific to amoxicillin and are general medication administration instructions. Choice C is not a common side effect of amoxicillin and does not require patient education.
4. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL
- B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
- C. Dyspnea
- D. Bilateral equal pupil size
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, an adverse effect of the medication. It suggests potential fluid overload or exacerbation of heart conditions, both of which require immediate attention. Reporting dyspnea promptly allows for timely evaluation and management. Blood glucose levels and urine output are important parameters to monitor but are not directly related to the administration of Mannitol for increased intracranial pressure. Bilateral equal pupil size is a normal and expected finding.
5. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- D. Expect a dry cough.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include during discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, leading to increased drug levels in the blood. This can result in potentiated side effects and potential toxicity. Option A is incorrect as amlodipine is usually taken once daily, not specifically at bedtime. Option C is incorrect because high-sodium foods are generally discouraged in individuals with hypertension. Option D is incorrect as a dry cough is not an expected side effect of amlodipine.
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