ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is reviewing a new prescription for Terbutaline with a history of preterm labor. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. I can increase my activity now that I've started on this medication.
- B. I will increase my daily fluid intake to 3 quarts.
- C. I will report increasing intensity of contractions to my doctor.
- D. I am glad this will prevent preterm labor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client should report increasing intensity, frequency, or duration of contractions to the provider as these are signs of preterm labor. Monitoring contractions is crucial for the management of preterm labor and the safety of both the client and the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing activity, fluid intake, or assuming the medication will prevent preterm labor do not address the essential need to report changes in contractions, which are a vital sign of potential complications in preterm labor.
2. Which statement is true about food and drug precautions?
- A. Limiting certain types of food or administering certain types of drugs is necessary.
- B. Certain combinations of food and drugs can cause adverse reactions.
- C. Precautions may involve limiting certain types of food or administering drugs rather than restricting the drug itself.
- D. When one drug alters the way another drug affects the body.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Certain combinations of food and drugs can indeed lead to adverse reactions. It is important to be cautious with the simultaneous intake of food and drugs as interactions between them can affect their efficacy and safety. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the potential risks associated with the combination of food and drugs.
3. A client has a new prescription for Hydralazine. Which of the following side effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for and report?
- A. Orthostatic hypotension
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Dark-colored urine
- D. Persistent cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydralazine, a vasodilator, can cause reflex tachycardia, leading to an increased heart rate. This side effect should be reported to the healthcare provider to ensure appropriate management and monitoring of the client's condition. Choice A (Orthostatic hypotension) is incorrect as Hydralazine is more likely to cause reflex tachycardia than orthostatic hypotension. Choice C (Dark-colored urine) and Choice D (Persistent cough) are unrelated to the common side effects of Hydralazine and should not be the focus of monitoring for this medication.
4. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours.
- B. Offer oral hygiene every 2 hours.
- C. Anticipate medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery.
- D. Monitor fetal heart rate every 2 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is receiving IV Opioid analgesics during labor, the nurse should offer oral hygiene every 2 hours. Opioid analgesics can cause adverse effects like dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting. Providing oral hygiene care helps alleviate these symptoms and maintains the client's comfort and well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate during labor as mobility may be limited. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's needs and the progress of labor. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but it is not specifically related to the client receiving IV Opioid analgesics.
5. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Remove the patch each evening.
- B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
- C. Take off the nitroglycerin patch if a headache occurs.
- D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the nitroglycerin patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a 10- to 12-hour nitrate-free period daily, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to nitroglycerin. Cutting the patch in half is not recommended because it can alter the dosing and absorption rate, leading to inadequate symptom control. Taking off the patch for a headache is not necessary as headaches are a common side effect that may improve with continued use. Applying a new patch every 48 hours is not correct as it may not provide continuous symptom relief for angina.
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