Nursing Elites

1. A client is reviewing a new prescription for Terbutaline with a history of preterm labor. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I can increase my activity now that I've started on this medication.
• B. I will increase my daily fluid intake to 3 quarts.
• C. I will report increasing intensity of contractions to my doctor.
• D. I am glad this will prevent preterm labor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client should report increasing intensity, frequency, or duration of contractions to the provider as these are signs of preterm labor. Monitoring contractions is crucial for the management of preterm labor and the safety of both the client and the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing activity, fluid intake, or assuming the medication will prevent preterm labor do not address the essential need to report changes in contractions, which are a vital sign of potential complications in preterm labor.

2. A client with Addison's disease is being admitted for a total hip arthroplasty. The client takes hydrocortisone. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administering a supplemental dose of hydrocortisone
• B. Instructing the client about coughing and deep breathing
• C. Collecting additional information from the client about his history of Addison's disease
• D. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for a client with Addison's disease undergoing surgery who takes hydrocortisone is to administer a supplemental dose of hydrocortisone. Acute adrenal insufficiency (adrenal crisis) is a significant risk during surgery due to the stress placed on the body. Supplemental doses help prevent acute adrenal insufficiency and ensure the client's safety during the surgical procedure. Instructing the client about coughing and deep breathing is important post-operatively but not the priority before surgery. Collecting additional information about the client's history of Addison's disease is relevant but not the priority action before surgery. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority action in this scenario.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should the healthcare professional monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of heparin?

• A. PT/INR
• B. Platelet count
• C. aPTT
• D. WBC count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct test to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Heparin's action is to prolong the clotting time, and aPTT reflects this effect. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. PT/INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, platelet count assesses for potential thrombocytopenia, and WBC count evaluates for signs of infection or inflammation, not the therapeutic effect of heparin.

4. A client with Angina Pectoris asks the nurse about the next step if one tablet does not relieve Anginal pain after waiting 5 minutes. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Take two more sublingual tablets simultaneously.
• B. Call emergency services.
• C. Take a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule.
• D. Wait another 5 minutes before taking a second sublingual tablet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where Anginal pain persists after taking one sublingual tablet and waiting 5 minutes, it is crucial to call emergency services (911) immediately. This could indicate a myocardial infarction (heart attack) rather than a typical Anginal attack. The client should not take two more sublingual tablets simultaneously without seeking immediate medical help as this could delay appropriate intervention if the pain is due to a heart attack. Taking a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule is not recommended for immediate relief of acute Anginal pain as it works too slowly. Waiting another 5 minutes before taking a second sublingual tablet is not appropriate if the pain persists, as prompt action is essential in suspected heart-related issues.

5. Which drug is the antidote for Alprazolam?

• A. Physostigmine
• B. Protamine sulfate
• C. Flumazenil
• D. Acetylcysteine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific antidote used to reverse the effects of Alprazolam. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that works by competitively inhibiting the actions of benzodiazepines at the receptor site, effectively reversing their sedative and other effects. Physostigmine is not used as an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose and can have significant side effects. Protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not benzodiazepines like Alprazolam. Acetylcysteine is used as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose, not benzodiazepines like Alprazolam.

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