ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is reviewing a new prescription for Terbutaline with a history of preterm labor. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. I can increase my activity now that I've started on this medication.
- B. I will increase my daily fluid intake to 3 quarts.
- C. I will report increasing intensity of contractions to my doctor.
- D. I am glad this will prevent preterm labor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client should report increasing intensity, frequency, or duration of contractions to the provider as these are signs of preterm labor. Monitoring contractions is crucial for the management of preterm labor and the safety of both the client and the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing activity, fluid intake, or assuming the medication will prevent preterm labor do not address the essential need to report changes in contractions, which are a vital sign of potential complications in preterm labor.
2. When does regular insulin typically peak?
- A. 30 minutes to 2 ½ hours
- B. 1 to 3 hours
- C. 6 to 14 hours
- D. 1 to 5 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Regular insulin usually peaks around 1 to 5 hours after administration. This peak time frame is important to consider when managing blood glucose levels and timing meals to coincide with insulin activity. Choice A, '30 minutes to 2 ½ hours,' is incorrect because regular insulin typically peaks later. Choice B, '1 to 3 hours,' is not the most accurate as the peak for regular insulin can extend beyond 3 hours. Choice C, '6 to 14 hours,' is incorrect as this timeframe is more indicative of long-acting insulins, not regular insulin.
3. A client is taking oral Oxycodone and Ibuprofen in recommended doses. The nurse should identify that an interaction between these two medications will cause which of the following findings?
- A. A decrease in serum levels of ibuprofen, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication.
- B. A decrease in serum levels of oxycodone, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication.
- C. An increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications.
- D. An increase in expected adverse effects for both medications.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When Oxycodone, a narcotic analgesic, and Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), are taken together, they work synergistically to enhance the pain-relieving effects of both medications. These drugs act through different mechanisms, leading to a combined analgesic effect that is more effective than when used alone. Therefore, the interaction between Oxycodone and Ibuprofen results in an increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications.
4. A client has a prescription for gentamicin for the treatment of an infection. Which finding indicates a potential adverse reaction to the medication?
- A. Blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg
- B. Presence of red blood cells in the urine
- C. Urine output of 35 mL/hr
- D. Respiratory rate of 22/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The presence of red blood cells in the urine can indicate nephrotoxicity, which is a potential adverse effect of gentamicin. Gentamicin can cause damage to the kidneys, leading to the presence of red blood cells in the urine as a sign of renal impairment. Monitoring for this finding is crucial to detect and manage adverse reactions promptly. High blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with gentamicin use. Low urine output (Choice C) is more suggestive of kidney injury rather than nephrotoxicity specifically related to gentamicin. Respiratory rate (Choice D) is not a common indicator of adverse reactions to gentamicin.
5. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a group of clients. The nurse should contact the provider about a potential contraindication to a medication for which of the following clients? (Select all that apply.)
- A. A client at 8 weeks of gestation who asks for an Influenza immunization
- B. A client who takes Prednisone and has a possible Fungal infection
- C. A client who has chronic liver disease and is taking Hydrocodone
- D. A client who has Peptic Ulcer Disease, takes Sucralfate, and tells the nurse she has started taking OTC Aluminum Hydroxide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, should not be taken by a client who has a possible systemic fungal infection as it can worsen the infection. This combination can suppress the immune response, allowing the fungal infection to proliferate. Therefore, the nurse should contact the provider regarding this potential contraindication to medication. The other options do not present a contraindication related to the medication interactions described in the question.
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