a nurse is reviewing a new prescription for terbutaline with a client who has a history of preterm labor which of the following client statements indi
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client is reviewing a new prescription for Terbutaline with a history of preterm labor. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client should report increasing intensity, frequency, or duration of contractions to the provider as these are signs of preterm labor. Monitoring contractions is crucial for the management of preterm labor and the safety of both the client and the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing activity, fluid intake, or assuming the medication will prevent preterm labor do not address the essential need to report changes in contractions, which are a vital sign of potential complications in preterm labor.

2. When teaching parents about a child newly prescribed Desipramine, the nurse should instruct them that which of the following adverse effects is the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority adverse effect to report when a child is prescribed Desipramine is suicidal thoughts. Desipramine can increase the risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. It is crucial for parents to monitor the child for any signs of worsening depression or thoughts of self-harm and report them promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent any harm to the child. Options A, C, and D are potential side effects of Desipramine but are not as urgent or life-threatening as suicidal thoughts, which require immediate intervention to ensure the safety of the child.

3. When instructing a client with a new prescription for Timolol on how to insert eye drops, which area should the nurse instruct the client to press on to prevent systemic absorption of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pressing on the nasolacrimal duct, located near the inner corner of the eye, blocks the lacrimal punctum and prevents the medication from entering the systemic circulation. This technique helps to ensure the medication stays localized in the eye, enhancing its therapeutic effect while minimizing systemic side effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The bony orbit is the eye socket and not a site to press for preventing systemic absorption. The conjunctival sac is where eye drops are instilled, not pressed on. The outer canthus is also not the correct area to press to prevent systemic absorption.

4. A client has been prescribed Prednisone for an inflammatory condition and is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to take Prednisone in the morning to prevent insomnia. Prednisone can cause insomnia as a side effect, so taking it in the morning can help minimize this issue. It is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions regarding the timing of Prednisone administration to optimize its effectiveness and minimize adverse effects.

5. Reteplase (Retavase) has been ordered for a client diagnosed with an MI. The nurse understands that this drug needs to be administered within which time frame following the onset of symptoms?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reteplase (Retavase) is a thrombolytic medication used in the treatment of myocardial infarction (MI). It is crucial to administer this drug within 30 minutes to 12 hours following the onset of symptoms to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and improve patient outcomes. Administering Reteplase within this time frame helps in restoring blood flow to the affected areas of the heart by dissolving blood clots, reducing myocardial damage, and potentially preventing further complications associated with MI.

Similar Questions

A client is being taught by a healthcare professional about preventing Otitis Externa. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver?
A client is prescribed an IM dose of penicillin. The client reports developing a rash after taking penicillin 3 years ago. What should the nurse do?
What is the antidote for Warfarin?
A client has been prescribed Alendronate for osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses