a nurse is reviewing a new prescription for terbutaline with a client who has a history of preterm labor which of the following client statements indi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client is reviewing a new prescription for Terbutaline with a history of preterm labor. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client should report increasing intensity, frequency, or duration of contractions to the provider as these are signs of preterm labor. Monitoring contractions is crucial for the management of preterm labor and the safety of both the client and the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing activity, fluid intake, or assuming the medication will prevent preterm labor do not address the essential need to report changes in contractions, which are a vital sign of potential complications in preterm labor.

2. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Bradycardia.' Atenolol, a beta-blocker, commonly causes bradycardia as an adverse effect. It works by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to a decreased heart rate known as bradycardia. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any potential complications while on atenolol. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because atenolol is not known to cause tachycardia, hypoglycemia, or hypertension as common adverse effects.

3. A hospitalized client has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should be prepared for transfusion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the appropriate blood product for a client with an elevated aPTT as it contains various coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathies and prevent bleeding. Elevated aPTT indicates a deficiency in specific clotting factors, and fresh frozen plasma is rich in these factors. Whole blood, platelets, and packed red blood cells do not contain the necessary coagulation factors to correct an elevated aPTT, so they are not indicated in this situation.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medication history and notes a new prescription for Enalapril. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia as an adverse effect due to decreased aldosterone levels, leading to potassium retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Enalapril. Enalapril does not typically affect glucose levels, so hypoglycemia (Choice C) is not a common concern with this medication. Enalapril does not directly impact calcium levels, so hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not a typical adverse effect.

5. When teaching a client with a prescription for long-term use of oral prednisone for chronic asthma, the nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Weight gain and fluid retention are common adverse effects of oral prednisone due to sodium and water retention. Patients on long-term prednisone therapy should be advised to monitor their weight closely and report any significant changes to their healthcare provider. Choice B, 'Nervousness,' is not typically associated with oral prednisone use. Choice C, 'Bradycardia,' refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. Choice D, 'Constipation,' is not a typical adverse effect of oral prednisone; instead, gastrointestinal disturbances like increased appetite or even peptic ulcer disease may occur.

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