a nurse is reviewing a new prescription for terbutaline with a client who has a history of preterm labor which of the following client statements indi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client is reviewing a new prescription for Terbutaline with a history of preterm labor. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client should report increasing intensity, frequency, or duration of contractions to the provider as these are signs of preterm labor. Monitoring contractions is crucial for the management of preterm labor and the safety of both the client and the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing activity, fluid intake, or assuming the medication will prevent preterm labor do not address the essential need to report changes in contractions, which are a vital sign of potential complications in preterm labor.

2. A client has a new prescription for Metformin. Which of the following adverse effects of Metformin should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Somnolence.' Somnolence can indicate lactic acidosis, which is manifested by extreme drowsiness, hyperventilation, and muscle pain. It is a rare but very serious adverse effect caused by metformin and should be reported to the provider promptly to prevent further complications.

3. A hospitalized client receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing a serious complication of heparin therapy, likely due to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Protamine is the antidote for heparin and can reverse its anticoagulant effects. It is essential to administer protamine promptly to counteract the effects of heparin and manage the bleeding. Vitamin K1 is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia or some types of poisoning. Calcium gluconate is used to manage hyperkalemia or calcium channel blocker toxicity, not to reverse heparin's effects.

4. A client has a new prescription for Cyclobenzaprine to treat muscle spasms. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include in the teaching for a client prescribed Cyclobenzaprine is to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication. Cyclobenzaprine can cause drowsiness, so it is important to advise clients to avoid activities that require alertness and coordination to prevent accidents or injuries. Choice B is incorrect because Cyclobenzaprine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect because Cyclobenzaprine is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just when experiencing muscle pain. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific need to increase potassium-rich foods while taking Cyclobenzaprine.

5. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is beginning therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Prompt reporting of dyspnea allows for timely evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings that the client should report.

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