Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin is being taught about the medication's adverse effects by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I should expect mild bruising around my elbows.''
• B. ''I should report a red rash to my provider.''
• C. ''I should stop taking this medication if I develop a cough.''
• D. ''I should expect black, tarry stools.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious adverse effect of warfarin that requires immediate medical attention. Option A is incorrect because while bruising is a common side effect of warfarin, it is not limited to the elbows. Option B is incorrect as a red rash is not a typical adverse effect of warfarin. Option C is also incorrect because developing a cough is not a reason to discontinue warfarin unless advised by a healthcare provider.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• B. Heart rate of 88/min.
• C. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg.
• D. Temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F) is above the normal range and may indicate infection, which should be reported. Elevated temperature postoperatively can be a sign of infection, especially in the early postoperative period. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period. A heart rate of 88/min and a blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg are within normal ranges and do not necessarily indicate a complication postoperatively.

3. In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?

• A. Below-the-knee amputation.
• B. Fractured tibia.
• C. 95% full-thickness body burn.
• D. 10 cm laceration to the forearm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 90/min
• B. Redness and warmth in the calf
• C. Oxygen saturation of 95%
• D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Redness and warmth in the calf can indicate a blood clot, specifically deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication post hip arthroplasty. The warmth and redness are signs of inflammation due to the clot formation. DVT can lead to a pulmonary embolism if not addressed promptly. Monitoring for this complication is crucial in postoperative care. Elevated heart rate, oxygen saturation within normal limits, and a slightly elevated temperature are common findings postoperatively and may not be alarming in the absence of other concerning symptoms.

5. A client is being taught about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. This medication will decrease my potassium levels.
• B. I should eat a banana every day to increase my potassium intake.
• C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience a cough.
• D. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking furosemide should avoid alcohol because it can lead to dehydration and potential interactions with the medication. Choices A and B are incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so the client should not expect an increase in potassium levels or solely rely on bananas for potassium intake. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of furosemide and should not be a reason to stop taking the medication.

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