a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy the clients platelet count is 25000mm3 which of the following actions should the nurse ta
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The client's platelet count is 25,000/mm3. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with a low platelet count are at risk of bleeding and infection. Monitoring the client's temperature every 4 hours is crucial to detect early signs of infection, as they may not be able to mount a typical immune response due to their compromised platelet count. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in clients with low platelet counts as it can further increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and checking for stool in a colostomy bag (choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority in a client with low platelet count.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A heart rate of 58/min is indicative of bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity, which should be reported immediately. While weight gain, respiratory rate, and temperature are important parameters to monitor, they are not as critical as identifying bradycardia in a client taking digoxin.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has liver cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with liver cirrhosis, an elevated prothrombin time indicates impaired liver function and decreased production of clotting factors. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate worsening liver cirrhosis. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL is normal, ammonia 35 mcg/dL is within the reference range, and albumin 4 g/dL is also within the normal range for this client population.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient taking digoxin?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels. Patients taking digoxin are at risk of developing toxicity due to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious arrhythmias. Monitoring calcium levels (Choice B) is not the primary concern in patients taking digoxin. While calcium levels play a role in cardiac function, hypocalcemia is not directly associated with digoxin toxicity. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern in a patient taking digoxin. Monitoring magnesium levels (Choice D) is also essential, but hypomagnesemia is not as directly linked to digoxin toxicity as hypokalemia.

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