Nursing Elites

1. When providing dietary teaching for a new prescription of phenelzine, which of the following foods should be avoided?

• A. Broccoli
• B. Yogurt
• C. Cream Cheese
• D. Fruit Juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Broccoli. Foods high in tyramine, such as broccoli, should be avoided when taking MAOIs like phenelzine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Yogurt, cream cheese, and fruit juice do not contain significant levels of tyramine and can be safely consumed while on phenelzine.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is immediately postoperative following a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which of the following should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Calcium gluconate
• B. Sodium bicarbonate
• C. Potassium chloride
• D. Sodium phosphate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the correct answer because it is administered to treat hypocalcemia, a common complication post-thyroidectomy. After a thyroidectomy, there is a risk of damaging the parathyroid glands, which can lead to a decrease in calcium levels. Administering calcium gluconate helps to raise calcium levels. Sodium bicarbonate (Choice B) is not typically indicated for immediate postoperative care following a subtotal thyroidectomy. Potassium chloride (Choice C) is not directly related to the common complications of this specific surgery. Sodium phosphate (Choice D) is not typically used to address immediate postoperative issues post-thyroidectomy.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus receiving regular insulin should be monitored for which of the following manifestations of hypoglycemia?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Dry skin.
• C. Increased thirst.
• D. Increased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of hypoglycemia, which can occur as a complication of insulin therapy in clients with diabetes mellitus. Dry skin (choice B) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Increased thirst (choice C) and increased urinary output (choice D) are symptoms more commonly seen in conditions like hyperglycemia or diabetes insipidus, not hypoglycemia.

4. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient with kidney disease?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor input and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Check urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. This method is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients with kidney disease. Daily weight monitoring can detect even small changes in fluid balance, such as fluid retention or loss, which may not be evident through other methods. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance as it doesn't consider factors like insensible losses. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid retention but may not always be present or may be difficult to assess accurately. Checking urine output (choice D) is important but may not reflect the overall fluid balance status of the patient.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis receiving heparin therapy needs monitoring. Which test should the nurse use to regulate the medication dosage?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). aPTT is specifically used to monitor and regulate heparin therapy as it assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which heparin affects. Options A and B, Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR), are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Option D, Fibrinogen levels, is not the primary test used to monitor heparin therapy.

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