Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Joint pain that improves with rest.
• B. Joint stiffness that improves with movement.
• C. Red, warm joints.
• D. Systemic inflammation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In osteoarthritis, joint pain that improves with rest is a common characteristic due to the relief obtained by reducing weight-bearing on the affected joint. Joint stiffness that improves with movement is more indicative of rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis. Red, warm joints are typically seen in inflammatory arthritis conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, while systemic inflammation is not a primary feature of osteoarthritis.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Tinnitus.
• B. Photosensitivity.
• C. Urinary frequency.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat UTIs, can cause photosensitivity as an adverse effect. This reaction makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, potentially leading to severe sunburns or skin damage. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this adverse effect to take precautions and report any signs of photosensitivity promptly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, urinary frequency, and insomnia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use. While urinary frequency might be a symptom of UTI, it is not an adverse effect of the medication itself.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Glucose 180 mg/dL
• B. Sodium 136 mEq/L
• C. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
• D. Albumin 3.5 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Glucose 180 mg/dL." Elevated glucose levels in a client receiving TPN may indicate hyperglycemia, which can lead to complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. It is essential to report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns related to TPN administration.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's admission laboratory results. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation?

• A. Sodium 138
• B. Creatinine 1.8
• C. Hemoglobin 15
• D. Potassium 4.2

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elevated creatinine level, such as 1.8, suggests potential kidney dysfunction, requiring further assessment. Sodium level within normal limits (135-145 mEq/L), hemoglobin level of 15 g/dL, and potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L are all within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns. Therefore, they do not require further evaluation at this time.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

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