Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following characterizes ductal carcinoma in situ?

• A. It is less common than lobular carcinoma in situ.
• B. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma.
• C. It is considered a cancer precursor.
• D. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma; it is considered a cancer precursor and has a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that ductal carcinoma in situ is characterized by malignant cells that have not invaded the stroma, making it a cancer precursor with a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice A is incorrect because ductal carcinoma in situ is more common than lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice B is incorrect as it only partially describes ductal carcinoma in situ without mentioning its potential for progression to invasive cancer. Choice C is incorrect because it does not capture the complete characteristics of ductal carcinoma in situ, which include the risk for invasive cancer.

2. Which of the following women is at highest risk for the development of endometrial cancer?

• A. A 50-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of high-risk human papillomavirus
• B. A 45-year-old woman who is obese and has a menstrual pattern consisting of periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods
• C. A 40-year-old woman who is overweight and has hypertension
• D. A 55-year-old woman who smokes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a 45-year-old woman who is obese and has a menstrual pattern consisting of periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods. Obesity and prolonged exposure to estrogen unopposed by progesterone due to infrequent ovulation are significant risk factors for endometrial cancer. Choices A, C, and D do not directly correlate with the increased risk of endometrial cancer. Postmenopausal status alone (Choice A), overweight with hypertension (Choice C), and smoking (Choice D) are not the primary risk factors for endometrial cancer.

3. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is frustrated by tremors associated with the disease. How should the nurse explain why these tremors occur? Due to the demyelination of neurons that occurs in MS:

• A. there is an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine, leading to tremors.
• B. there is a disruption in nerve impulse conduction, causing tremors.
• C. muscles are unable to receive impulses, resulting in tremors.
• D. the reflex arc is disrupted, leading to muscle tremors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In multiple sclerosis (MS), demyelination of neurons disrupts nerve impulse conduction. This disruption in nerve impulses can lead to tremors, explaining why the client experiences tremors in MS. Choice A is incorrect because tremors in MS are primarily due to nerve conduction issues, not an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the process; the issue lies in nerve impulses, not the muscle's ability to receive them. Choice D is incorrect as the primary cause of tremors in MS is the disruption in nerve impulse conduction, not the reflex arc being disrupted.

4. A child is experiencing difficulty with chewing and swallowing. The nurse knows that which cells may be innervating specialized gut-related receptors that provide taste and smell?

• A. Special somatic afferent fibers
• B. General somatic afferents
• C. Special visceral afferent cells
• D. General visceral afferent neurons

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Special visceral afferent cells. These cells are responsible for innervating taste and smell receptors related to the gut. Special somatic afferent fibers (choice A) are involved in sensations like touch and proprioception, not taste and smell. General somatic afferents (choice B) carry sensory information from the skin and musculoskeletal system, not taste and smell. General visceral afferent neurons (choice D) transmit sensory information from internal organs, but not specifically related to taste and smell sensations.

5. A client is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident in which she suffered a spinal cord injury at the level of C5. Which of the following assessments should be the priority?

• A. Monitoring urinary output
• B. Monitoring heart rate and rhythm
• C. Monitoring respiratory rate
• D. Monitoring the client's pain levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring heart rate and rhythm. With a C5 spinal cord injury, monitoring heart rate and rhythm is crucial as it can impact autonomic regulation. This level of injury can affect cardiac function due to the disruption of sympathetic nerve fibers. Monitoring urinary output may be important to assess for urinary retention, but it is not the priority in this scenario. While monitoring respiratory rate is essential in all patients, in this case, cardiovascular stability takes precedence. Pain management is important but is not the priority when assessing a client with a C5 spinal cord injury.

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