Nursing Elites

1. A 30-year-old woman presents with joint pain, a malar rash, and photosensitivity. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Rheumatoid arthritis
• B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
• C. Psoriatic arthritis
• D. Dermatomyositis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Systemic lupus erythematosus. Joint pain, a malar rash, and photosensitivity are classic symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus. Choice A, Rheumatoid arthritis, is incorrect as it typically presents with symmetric joint involvement and morning stiffness. Psoriatic arthritis (Choice C) is characterized by joint pain associated with psoriasis, which is not described in the case. Dermatomyositis (Choice D) presents with muscle weakness, skin rash, and elevated muscle enzymes, different from the symptoms presented in the case.

2. A 30-year-old male has been brought to the emergency department by his wife because of a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. A lumbar puncture is performed, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals a high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs). Which organism is the most likely cause of these findings?

• A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
• B. Neisseria meningitidis
• C. Escherichia coli
• D. Listeria monocytogenes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis findings of high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are classic for bacterial meningitis. Among the choices, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely cause in this case. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults, especially presenting with symptoms such as severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Neisseria meningitidis is another common cause of bacterial meningitis but is more frequently associated with a different CSF profile. Escherichia coli is a common cause of neonatal meningitis, not typically seen in a 30-year-old male. Listeria monocytogenes is more commonly associated with meningitis in immunocompromised individuals and neonates, and typically presents differently in CSF analysis.

3. What important instruction should the nurse provide regarding the application of testosterone gel in a patient with hypogonadism?

• A. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
• B. Apply the gel to the face and neck for maximum absorption.
• C. Apply the gel to the genitals for improved results.
• D. Apply the gel to the scalp and back for better results.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for applying testosterone gel in a patient with hypogonadism is to apply it to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing. This method helps avoid transfer to others. Applying the gel to the face, neck, or genitals is not recommended as it can lead to unintended exposure to others. Additionally, applying the gel to the scalp and back is not a standard or effective route of administration for testosterone gel. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it ensures proper application and safety.

4. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain regarding this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a reduced risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of prostate cancer; in fact, it has shown a protective effect. Choice D is incorrect because while finasteride may lower the risk of prostate cancer, regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and treatment if needed.

5. What is the primary function of the kidneys in acid-base balance?

• A. The kidneys remove hydrogen ions and retain bicarbonate ions.
• B. The kidneys convert ammonia into urea, which is excreted in the urine.
• C. The kidneys produce aldosterone to regulate sodium levels.
• D. The kidneys secrete renin to regulate blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The kidneys are crucial in maintaining acid-base balance by removing hydrogen ions to decrease acidity and retaining bicarbonate ions to increase alkalinity. Choice B is incorrect because the conversion of ammonia into urea is related to nitrogen waste excretion, not acid-base balance. Choice C is incorrect as aldosterone regulates sodium levels, not acid-base balance. Choice D is also incorrect as renin is involved in regulating blood pressure, not acid-base balance.

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