Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary cause of primary hypercholesteremia?

• A. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) defects
• B. Monogenic mutations, sedentary lifestyle, and high cholesterol diet
• C. Polygenic mutations and environmental factors
• D. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor mutation with defects in breakdown

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor mutation with defects in breakdown.' Primary hypercholesteremia is mainly caused by mutations in the LDL receptor, leading to impaired clearance of LDL cholesterol from the blood. This results in high levels of LDL cholesterol in the bloodstream. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary cause of primary hypercholesteremia.

2. When the body produces antibodies against its own tissue, the condition is called

• A. Alloimmunity
• B. Opsonization
• C. Autoimmunity
• D. Hypersensitivity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, autoimmunity. Autoimmunity refers to the immune system attacking the body's own tissues. Alloimmunity (choice A) is the immune response to tissues of another individual of the same species. Opsonization (choice B) is the process where pathogens are marked for destruction by immune cells. Hypersensitivity (choice D) refers to excessive or inappropriate immune responses.

3. Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of exercise-induced asthma?

• A. Bronchospasm after exercise
• B. IgE-mediated inflammatory response to antigen
• C. Bronchoconstriction after ingesting high-allergen foods
• D. Increased mucus production due to a genetic mutation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Bronchospasm after exercise.' Exercise-induced asthma involves the narrowing of the airways (bronchospasm) triggered by physical activity. This bronchospasm leads to symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because exercise-induced asthma is not primarily caused by an IgE-mediated inflammatory response to an antigen, bronchoconstriction after ingesting high-allergen foods, or increased mucus production due to a genetic mutation.

4. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

• A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
• B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
• C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
• D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.

5. Which of the following conditions is associated with a positive Homan's sign?

• A. Deep vein thrombosis
• B. Peripheral artery disease
• C. Varicose veins
• D. Lymphedema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive Homan's sign is indicative of deep vein thrombosis. This sign is elicited by dorsiflexing the foot of a patient with the knee slightly flexed, resulting in calf pain. Peripheral artery disease (choice B) is associated with decreased blood flow to the extremities, but it does not produce a positive Homan's sign. Varicose veins (choice C) are enlarged, twisted veins that are typically not related to Homan's sign. Lymphedema (choice D) is swelling caused by a lymphatic system blockage or dysfunction and is not linked to Homan's sign.

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