a 69 year old female patient has been diagnosed with malignant melanoma the care team has collaborated with the patient and her family and agreed on a
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Final Exam Pathophysiology

1. A 69-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with malignant melanoma. The care team has collaborated with the patient and her family and agreed on a plan of care that includes administration of interferon alfa-2b. After administering interferon alfa-2b, the oncology nurse should anticipate that the patient may develop which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After the administration of interferon alfa-2b, the patient may develop flu-like symptoms as an adverse effect. Flu-like symptoms are commonly associated with interferon therapy, including fever, chills, fatigue, and muscle aches. These symptoms usually subside over time. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with interferon alfa-2b administration. Profound diaphoresis is excessive sweating, decreased level of consciousness indicates neurological issues, and cyanosis and pallor suggest circulatory or respiratory problems, none of which are expected adverse effects of interferon alfa-2b.

2. A patient is administered isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis. Which of the following adverse effects will result in discontinuation of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jaundice. Isoniazid (INH) is known to cause hepatotoxicity, which can manifest as jaundice. Jaundice is a serious adverse effect that warrants immediate discontinuation of the medication to prevent further liver damage. Weight gain, fever, and arthralgia are not typically associated with isoniazid use and would not necessitate discontinuation of the medication.

3. What is a cause of the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Underexcretion of uric acid. Gouty arthritis is primarily caused by the underexcretion of uric acid, leading to its accumulation in joints and subsequent crystallization. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of gout. Destruction of proteoglycans, overexcretion of uric acid, and increased absorption of uric acid are not primary causes of gouty arthritis.

4. A public health nurse is responsible for the administration of numerous immunizations. Which of the following guidelines regarding anaphylaxis should the nurse adhere to?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 30 minutes after administration.' This is because anaphylaxis can occur within minutes of administration of an immunization. By observing the patient for 30 minutes, the nurse can promptly identify and manage any signs of anaphylaxis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they suggest shorter or longer observation periods, which may not be sufficient to detect and respond to anaphylaxis in a timely manner.

5. A client with a history of tuberculosis (TB) is experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate being ordered?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A chest x-ray is the most appropriate diagnostic test for a client with a history of tuberculosis experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. A chest x-ray is commonly used to visualize the lungs and check for signs of active tuberculosis, such as abnormal shadows or nodules. While a sputum culture (Choice A) can confirm the presence of TB bacteria, it may not be the initial test ordered for a recurrence. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) and CT scan of the chest (Choice D) are more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the chest x-ray is inconclusive or to further assess complications, rather than as the initial diagnostic test for a recurrence of tuberculosis.

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