Nursing Elites

1. Thrombocytopenia is which disorder below?

• A. Increased blood coagulation
• B. Increased platelet production
• C. Increased number of infections
• D. Decreased platelet production

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a disorder characterized by a decreased platelet count or decreased platelet production, which affects blood clotting. Choice A, 'Increased blood coagulation,' is incorrect as thrombocytopenia is associated with decreased platelets, leading to impaired clotting. Choice B, 'Increased platelet production,' is incorrect as thrombocytopenia is characterized by a decrease in platelet production. Choice C, 'Increased number of infections,' is unrelated to thrombocytopenia, which primarily involves low platelet levels.

2. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain regarding this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a reduced risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of prostate cancer; in fact, it has shown a protective effect. Choice D is incorrect because while finasteride may lower the risk of prostate cancer, regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and treatment if needed.

3. A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Administer muscle relaxants as prescribed.
• B. Assist the client with activities of daily living (ADLs).
• C. Provide nutritional support to prevent aspiration.
• D. Encourage the client to participate in physical therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with ALS is to provide nutritional support to prevent aspiration. ALS causes muscle weakness, including the muscles used for swallowing, increasing the risk of aspiration. Providing proper nutrition and support can help prevent this complication. Administering muscle relaxants (Choice A) may not be suitable for ALS as it can further weaken muscles. While assisting with ADLs (Choice B) and encouraging physical therapy (Choice D) are important aspects of care, the priority for a client with ALS is to prevent complications related to swallowing and nutrition.

4. Mrs. Jordan is an elderly client diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. She becomes agitated and combative when a nurse approaches to help with morning care. The most appropriate nursing intervention in this situation would be to:

• A. tell the client firmly that it is time to get dressed.
• B. obtain assistance to restrain the client for safety.
• C. remain calm and talk quietly to the client.
• D. call the doctor and request an order for sedation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When dealing with an elderly client with Alzheimer’s disease who is agitated and combative, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to remain calm and talk quietly to the client. This approach can help soothe the client and prevent escalating the situation. Choice A is incorrect as being firm may further agitate the client. Choice B is inappropriate as restraining should only be used as a last resort for safety reasons and after other de-escalation techniques have been attempted. Choice D is not the best initial intervention and should only be considered after other non-pharmacological interventions have failed.

5. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation in a patient with renal impairment associated with polycystic kidney disease?

• A. Suprapubic pain
• B. Periorbital edema
• C. Low serum creatinine level
• D. Palpable kidneys

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Palpable kidneys. Polycystic kidney disease often leads to the development of multiple fluid-filled cysts within the kidneys, causing them to enlarge. Enlarged kidneys can be palpated during a physical examination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Suprapubic pain is not a typical clinical manifestation of polycystic kidney disease. Periorbital edema is more commonly associated with conditions like nephrotic syndrome or heart failure. Low serum creatinine level is not expected in patients with renal impairment due to polycystic kidney disease; instead, elevated serum creatinine levels are more likely.

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