Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Nifedipine?

• A. Angina
• B. Arrhythmias
• C. Hypertension
• D. Fluid retention

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used in the management of angina and hypertension. It is not typically used to treat arrhythmias or fluid retention. Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, and hypertension is high blood pressure. Therefore, fluid retention is the condition that is not treated with Nifedipine.

2. A client with HIV-1 infection is prescribed zidovudine as part of antiretroviral therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Cardiac dysrhythmia
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Renal failure
• D. Aplastic anemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Zidovudine is associated with the development of aplastic anemia, a serious adverse effect characterized by bone marrow suppression. Regular monitoring is essential to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Cardiac dysrhythmia, metabolic alkalosis, and renal failure are not commonly associated with zidovudine use, making them incorrect choices for adverse effects of this medication.

3. Why has an ACE inhibitor been prescribed following an MI?

• A. “This medication will lower your potassium level.”
• B. “ACE inhibitors have been found to reduce mortality following MI.”
• C. “ACE inhibitors are always prescribed with a beta blocker and calcium channel blocker following an MI.”
• D. “This medication will treat your hypotension.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Following a myocardial infarction (MI), ACE inhibitors are commonly prescribed due to their proven benefit in reducing mortality and improving outcomes post-MI. These medications help by decreasing the workload of the heart, preventing remodeling of the heart chambers, and improving survival rates. While ACE inhibitors may have effects on potassium levels, the primary reason for their prescription post-MI is their mortality-reducing properties.

4. How can the nurse best explain the difference between angina and a myocardial infarction to a client presenting with severe chest pain?

• A. “Angina usually resolves with rest, and is rarely fatal, while a myocardial infarction necessitates immediate treatment and can be life-threatening.”
• B. “There is a clear distinction between the two. You will receive treatment based on the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction.”
• C. “Both conditions result from a clot obstructing the coronary arteries. Angina occurs with the blockage of a small vessel, whereas a myocardial infarction occurs with a blockage of a large vessel.”
• D. “Angina may not cause as intense chest pain, whereas a myocardial infarction always presents with severe chest pain.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a client about the differences between angina and a myocardial infarction, it is crucial to emphasize key distinguishing factors. Angina typically improves with rest and is not usually life-threatening, whereas a myocardial infarction requires urgent intervention as it can be life-threatening. This explanation helps the client understand the urgency and severity associated with a myocardial infarction compared to angina.

5. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take sucralfate with meals.
• B. Take sucralfate 1 hr before meals.
• C. Take sucralfate with antacids.
• D. Take sucralfate 2 hours after meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking sucralfate is 1 hour before meals. This timing allows sucralfate to effectively coat the stomach lining and provide a protective barrier against gastric acid, helping to prevent ulcers.

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