Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Nifedipine?

• A. Angina
• B. Arrhythmias
• C. Hypertension
• D. Fluid retention

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used in the management of angina and hypertension. It is not typically used to treat arrhythmias or fluid retention. Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, and hypertension is high blood pressure. Therefore, fluid retention is the condition that is not treated with Nifedipine.

2. Which medication is a beta blocker?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Verapamil (Calan)
• C. Captopril (Capoten)
• D. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta blocker commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and angina by blocking the action of adrenaline on the heart. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, and Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication. Therefore, the correct answer is Atenolol (Tenormin) as it belongs to the beta blocker class of medications.

3. A client has difficulty swallowing medications and is prescribed enteric-coated aspirin PO once daily. The client asks if the medication can be crushed to make it easier to swallow. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?

• A. Crushing the medication might cause you to have a stomachache or indigestion.
• B. Crushing the medication is a good idea, and I can mix it in some ice cream for you.
• C. Crushing the medication would release all the medication at once, rather than over time.
• D. Crushing is unsafe, as it destroys the ingredients in the medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Crushing an enteric-coated medication can cause it to break down in the stomach instead of the intestines, potentially leading to gastrointestinal distress like stomachache or indigestion. It is important to take enteric-coated medications whole to ensure they are properly absorbed in the intestines and to prevent irritation to the stomach.

4. A client with Depression has a new prescription for Venlafaxine. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor this client? (Select all that apply)

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Decreased libido
• D. B and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B and C.' Venlafaxine, a medication used to treat depression, can lead to adverse effects like dizziness and decreased libido. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for these potential side effects. Cough and alopecia are not typically associated with Venlafaxine. Therefore, choices A (Cough) and C (Decreased libido) are incorrect. Dizziness and decreased libido are the adverse effects that the nurse should focus on when monitoring a client on Venlafaxine treatment.

5. A client is taking Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?

• A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
• C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
• D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is considered elevated and should be reported to the provider for further assessment and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not directly affected by Spironolactone and do not typically require immediate reporting unless there are other underlying issues or specific instructions for those electrolytes.

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