Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Nifedipine?

• A. Angina
• B. Arrhythmias
• C. Hypertension
• D. Fluid retention

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used in the management of angina and hypertension. It is not typically used to treat arrhythmias or fluid retention. Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, and hypertension is high blood pressure. Therefore, fluid retention is the condition that is not treated with Nifedipine.

2. A healthcare professional in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings is indicative of this condition?

• A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
• B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
• C. Severe pain around the eyes
• D. Intraocular pressure 12 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a classic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is often associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent permanent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more indicative of conditions like macular degeneration. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12 mm Hg is within the normal range and is not typical of angle-closure glaucoma.

3. A client with a prescription for Vasopressin to treat Diabetes Insipidus is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will reduce my sodium intake.
• B. I should increase my water intake.
• C. I will notify my doctor if I develop chest pain.
• D. I should take this medication with food.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Vasopressin can cause vasoconstriction, potentially leading to chest pain. It is crucial for the client to inform their healthcare provider immediately if they experience chest pain while on Vasopressin therapy to address any potential cardiovascular complications promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While maintaining adequate hydration is essential with Vasopressin therapy due to its antidiuretic effect, increasing water intake is not the most critical aspect to monitor. Reducing sodium intake may be beneficial in some cases but is not directly related to the potential side effects of Vasopressin. Taking the medication with food is not a specific instruction for Vasopressin administration.

4. A client is prescribed an IM dose of penicillin. The client reports developing a rash after taking penicillin 3 years ago. What should the nurse do?

• A. Administer the prescribed dose.
• B. Withhold the medication.
• C. Ask the provider to change the prescription to an oral form.
• D. Administer an oral antihistamine at the same time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should withhold the medication and inform the provider of the client's previous rash after taking penicillin. This history suggests a potential allergic reaction to penicillin, which can range from mild to severe anaphylaxis. Notifying the provider allows for an alternative antibiotic to be prescribed, considering the client's allergy to penicillin. It is crucial to avoid administering a medication that could potentially lead to a severe allergic reaction in the client. Administering the prescribed dose (Choice A) could be harmful due to the potential for an allergic reaction. Changing the prescription to an oral form (Choice C) does not address the underlying issue of a potential penicillin allergy. Administering an oral antihistamine (Choice D) without consulting the provider may not be sufficient to prevent a severe allergic reaction.

5. A healthcare professional is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Platelet count
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. Monitoring the patient's platelet count is essential because a decrease in platelet count can increase the risk of bleeding. By assessing the platelet count, the healthcare professional can detect any potential adverse effects related to the medication and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. White blood cell count, hemoglobin, and blood glucose levels are not directly affected by Clopidogrel, so they are not the primary values to monitor for potential adverse effects of this medication.

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