ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored
1. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Nifedipine?
- A. Angina
- B. Arrhythmias
- C. Hypertension
- D. Fluid retention
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used in the management of angina and hypertension. It is not typically used to treat arrhythmias or fluid retention. Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, and hypertension is high blood pressure. Therefore, fluid retention is the condition that is not treated with Nifedipine.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?
- A. Respiratory rate
- B. Pain level
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Level of consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority assessment for a client receiving an IV bolus of Morphine is the respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, which is a serious adverse effect. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise early and intervene promptly. Assessing pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are also important but not the priority in this situation. Pain level can be assessed after ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable. Blood pressure and level of consciousness should be monitored but do not take precedence over the respiratory rate when administering Morphine.
3. A client in the emergency department has Benzodiazepine toxicity due to an overdose. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
- A. Administer flumazenil.
- B. Identify the client's level of orientation.
- C. Infuse IV fluids.
- D. Prepare the client for gastric lavage.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a situation where a client presents with Benzodiazepine toxicity, the priority action for the nurse is to assess the client. By identifying the client's level of orientation, the nurse can gather crucial information about the client's mental status, which is essential for determining the appropriate care and interventions needed. Administering flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines but should be based on a comprehensive assessment. Infusing IV fluids and preparing for gastric lavage may be necessary interventions but should follow a thorough assessment of the client's condition to ensure proper prioritization of care.
4. A client is starting therapy with cisplatin. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Nausea
- C. Constipation
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is tinnitus. Cisplatin can cause ototoxicity, which may manifest as tinnitus. Tinnitus should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further hearing damage.
5. When discussing immunizations, which vaccine series is typically completed before a child's first birthday?
- A. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
- B. Meningococcal conjugate vaccine
- C. Varicella vaccine
- D. Rotavirus vaccine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rotavirus vaccine. The rotavirus vaccine series is usually completed before a child's first birthday. It is given to infants in a series of doses starting at 2 months of age and must be completed by 8 months of age. This vaccine helps protect against severe diarrhea and vomiting caused by rotavirus infection, which is common in infants and young children. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, Meningococcal conjugate vaccine, and Varicella vaccine are not typically completed before a child's first birthday.
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