Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Nifedipine?

• A. Angina
• B. Arrhythmias
• C. Hypertension
• D. Fluid retention

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used in the management of angina and hypertension. It is not typically used to treat arrhythmias or fluid retention. Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, and hypertension is high blood pressure. Therefore, fluid retention is the condition that is not treated with Nifedipine.

2. A client has been prescribed diltiazem (Cardizem) and asks the nurse what type of drug this is. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. “A beta blocker.”
• B. “A sodium channel blocker.”
• C. “An alpha blocker.”
• D. “A calcium channel blocker.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diltiazem (Cardizem) belongs to the class of drugs known as calcium channel blockers. These medications work by blocking calcium from entering the muscle cells of the heart and blood vessels, leading to relaxation of the blood vessels and reduced workload on the heart. This helps in lowering blood pressure and improving blood flow. It is crucial for the nurse to provide accurate information to the client about the type of drug prescribed to ensure understanding and compliance with the treatment plan.

3. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Fluoxetine for PTS. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You may experience a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication.
• B. You should take this medication in the morning to avoid sleep disturbances.
• C. To minimize urinary adverse effects, ensure you urinate before taking this medication.
• D. It is recommended to wear sunglasses outdoors due to the light sensitivity caused by this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include in the teaching is that the client may experience a decreased desire for intimacy while taking Fluoxetine for PTS. This is important because Fluoxetine, an SSRI used to treat PTS, can lead to decreased libido as a potential adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific side effect associated with Fluoxetine and are not directly relevant to the medication's effects for this patient.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

5. When teaching the parents of a child who has a new prescription for Desipramine, which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the parents is the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Constipation
• B. Suicidal thoughts
• C. Photophobia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority adverse effect to report when a child is taking Desipramine is suicidal thoughts. Desipramine can lead to an increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. The nurse should emphasize to the parents the importance of monitoring the child for any signs of worsening depression or suicidal ideation. Prompt reporting of such symptoms can help prevent harm to the child. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority adverse effects associated with Desipramine. While constipation, photophobia, and dry mouth can occur as side effects of Desipramine, they are not as critical as the risk of suicidal thoughts, which requires immediate attention to ensure the safety of the child.

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