Nursing Elites

1. What is the pharmacological class of Lithium?

• A. Antidiabetics, biguanides
• B. Mood stabilizers
• C. Antiarrhythmics, anticonvulsants
• D. Vascular headache suppressants

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lithium is classified as a mood stabilizer due to its primary use in managing bipolar disorder, where it helps stabilize mood swings and prevent episodes of mania and depression. While it can have other effects on the body, its main therapeutic role lies in its mood-stabilizing properties. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as lithium is not classified as antidiabetics, biguanides, antiarrhythmics, anticonvulsants, or vascular headache suppressants. Its main pharmacological class is mood stabilizers.

2. Which of the following types of insulin is classified as 'long-acting'?

• A. Lispro (Humalog)
• B. NPH (Humulin N)
• C. Regular insulin (Humulin R)
• D. Glargine (Lantus)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Glargine (Lantus). Glargine is classified as a long-acting insulin due to its slow, steady release over an extended period, making it suitable for basal insulin requirements. It has a duration of action that can last up to 24 hours, helping to maintain stable blood sugar levels throughout the day. Lispro (Humalog) is a rapid-acting insulin, NPH (Humulin N) is an intermediate-acting insulin, and Regular insulin (Humulin R) is a short-acting insulin, so they are not classified as long-acting insulins.

3. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Increased TSH level
• B. Decreased ALT level
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.

4. A client with angina asks about obtaining a prescription for sildenafil to treat erectile dysfunction. Which of the following medications is contraindicated with Sildenafil?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Isosorbide
• C. Clopidogrel
• D. Atorvastatin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Isosorbide is an organic nitrate used to manage angina. Concurrent use of sildenafil with organic nitrates, like isosorbide, is contraindicated due to the risk of fatal hypotension. It is essential for clients to avoid taking nitrate medications within 24 hours of using isosorbide to prevent serious complications.

5. A healthcare professional in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings is indicative of this condition?

• A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
• B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
• C. Severe pain around the eyes
• D. Intraocular pressure 12 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a classic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is often associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent permanent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more indicative of conditions like macular degeneration. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12 mm Hg is within the normal range and is not typical of angle-closure glaucoma.

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