Nursing Elites

1. A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered a ______.

• A. Antidepressant
• B. Protease inhibitor
• C. Beta antagonist
• D. H antagonist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a drug name ends in the suffix -navir, it indicates that the drug is a protease inhibitor. Protease inhibitors are commonly used in antiviral therapy to treat infections by inhibiting viral replication. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Protease inhibitor.

2. What instruction should the nurse give regarding the adverse effect of dry mouth associated with diphenhydramine for a client with poison ivy?

• A. Administer the medication with food.
• B. Chew on sugarless gum or suck on hard, sour candies.
• C. Place a humidifier at your bedside every evening.
• D. Discontinue the medication and notify your provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for dry mouth associated with diphenhydramine is to chew on sugarless gum or suck on hard, sour candies. These actions stimulate saliva production, providing relief from dry mouth. Administering the medication with food (Choice A) may help reduce stomach upset but won't address dry mouth. Placing a humidifier at the bedside (Choice C) can help with dry air-related issues but won't specifically target dry mouth. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) without consulting the provider is not recommended and may lead to inadequate treatment of poison ivy.

3. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Bradycardia.' Atenolol, a beta-blocker, commonly causes bradycardia as an adverse effect. It works by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to a decreased heart rate known as bradycardia. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any potential complications while on atenolol. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because atenolol is not known to cause tachycardia, hypoglycemia, or hypertension as common adverse effects.

4. A healthcare provider is providing instructions to the parent of an adolescent client who has a new prescription for Albuterol, PO. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. You should not use this medication for an acute asthma attack.'
• B. Tremors may be an adverse effect of this medication.'
• C. Long-term use of this medication can lead to hyperglycemia.'
• D. This medication can inhibit skeletal growth.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tremors may occur as a result of excessive stimulation of beta2 receptors in skeletal muscles when using Albuterol. It is important to educate the parent about potential adverse effects to ensure proper monitoring and management of the adolescent client's medication regimen.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion in the urine. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare provider should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are prescribed Furosemide. While monitoring other electrolytes like sodium and magnesium may also be important in certain situations, the priority for a client prescribed Furosemide is to monitor serum potassium levels due to the risk of hypokalemia.

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