Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Capecitabine is known to cause neutropenia as a common adverse effect due to bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections and requires close monitoring to prevent complications. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use, making them incorrect choices.

2. When administering Phenytoin, what should you monitor?

• A. Behavior
• B. Therapeutic blood levels
• C. For signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering Phenytoin, monitoring the patient's behavior is important to assess for any changes that may indicate adverse effects. Monitoring therapeutic blood levels helps ensure the medication is within the effective range and not causing toxicity. Additionally, being vigilant for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a severe skin reaction associated with Phenytoin use, is crucial for early detection and intervention. Therefore, monitoring behavior, therapeutic blood levels, and for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome are all essential when administering Phenytoin.

3. When a client has a new prescription for Warfarin, which of the following foods should they avoid based on the nurse's instructions?

• A. Broccoli
• B. Bananas
• C. Chicken
• D. Potatoes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients prescribed Warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K, like broccoli, as they can counteract the medication's effectiveness. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so consuming high vitamin K foods can interfere with its anticoagulant effects. Bananas, chicken, and potatoes are not high in vitamin K and do not have a significant impact on Warfarin therapy.

4. In the management of nausea due to gastroparesis in a client with Diabetes, which of the following medications may be prescribed?

• A. Lubiprostone
• B. Metoclopramide
• C. Bisacodyl
• D. Loperamide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoclopramide, as a dopamine antagonist, is commonly prescribed to manage nausea and improve gastric motility in clients with diabetic gastroparesis. By enhancing gastric emptying, it can help alleviate symptoms like bloating and nausea associated with gastroparesis. Choice A, Lubiprostone, is primarily used to treat chronic idiopathic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation, not nausea due to gastroparesis. Choice C, Bisacodyl, is a stimulant laxative used for the treatment of constipation and bowel preparation before procedures, not for nausea associated with gastroparesis. Choice D, Loperamide, is an antimotility agent used to manage diarrhea, not nausea or gastric motility issues seen in gastroparesis.

5. A client with renal failure and an elevated phosphorus level is prescribed aluminum hydroxide 300 mg PO three times daily. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse inform the client?

• A. Constipation
• B. Metallic taste
• C. Headache
• D. Muscle spasms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. Aluminum hydroxide is known to cause constipation as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential adverse effect is important for their awareness and management. The other options, metallic taste, headache, and muscle spasms, are not typically associated with aluminum hydroxide use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client about the increased risk of constipation and provide guidance on managing this side effect to improve the client's comfort and treatment adherence.

Similar Questions