Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Dantrolene to a client who has developed Malignant Hyperthermia during surgery. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Dilute the medication with sterile water and administer it rapidly.
• B. Store the medication in a refrigerator until use.
• C. Administer the medication through a large-bore IV catheter.
• D. Administer the medication via an infusion pump over 60 minutes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dantrolene should be administered through a large-bore IV catheter because it is highly irritating to tissues and can cause vein irritation or thrombophlebitis if administered through a small vein. Using a large-bore IV catheter helps to minimize the risk of tissue damage and ensures proper and safe administration of the medication in emergency situations like Malignant Hyperthermia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because diluting the medication with sterile water and administering it rapidly can lead to tissue damage, storing the medication in a refrigerator is not necessary, and administering the medication via an infusion pump over 60 minutes is not appropriate in emergency situations like Malignant Hyperthermia where rapid administration is crucial.

2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication before bed.
• B. Monitor for increased blood pressure.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Monitor for leg cramps.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for leg cramps.' Leg cramps may indicate hypokalemia, an adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide, and should be reported to the provider. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is usually taken in the morning to avoid nocturia. Choice B is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that helps lower blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide can be taken with or without food.

3. A client with HIV is starting therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Ringing in the ears
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequent fatigue.

4. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?

• A. Shuffling gait
• B. Neck spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Impotence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.

5. What is a severe adverse effect of iron supplementation?

• A. Seizures
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Edema
• D. Serotonin syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A severe adverse effect of iron supplementation is seizures. Iron toxicity can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, vomiting, bloody diarrhea, lethargy, and in severe cases, seizures. It is important for individuals taking iron supplements to follow recommended dosages to prevent adverse effects.

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