ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client prescribed Warfarin is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
- D. Avoid foods high in iron.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of Warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can reduce the medication's anticoagulant effect. Therefore, clients taking Warfarin should be advised to avoid or consume a consistent amount of foods high in vitamin K to maintain the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables, dairy products, or avoiding foods high in iron are not directly related to the interaction with Warfarin.
2. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
- B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hours
- C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a potentially dangerous condition. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in serious consequences such as cardiac dysrhythmias. The healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider, withhold the medication, and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are crucial in clients receiving spironolactone. The other options do not directly relate to the potential adverse effects of spironolactone and are within normal limits, making them less urgent to report.
3. A client in a long-term care facility has Hypothyroidism and a new prescription for Levothyroxine. Which of the following dosage schedules should the nurse expect for this client?
- A. The client will start at a high dose, and the dose will be tapered as needed.
- B. The client will remain on the initial dosage during the course of treatment.
- C. The client's dosage will be adjusted daily based on blood levels.
- D. The client will start on a low dose, which will be gradually increased.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should expect that levothyroxine will be started at a low dose and gradually increased over several weeks. This cautious approach is crucial, especially in older adult clients, to prevent toxicity and ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes for managing hypothyroidism. Choice A is incorrect because starting at a high dose and tapering as needed is not the standard approach for levothyroxine. Choice B is incorrect because the initial dosage is typically adjusted to reach the optimal therapeutic dose. Choice C is incorrect as adjusting the dosage daily based on blood levels is not necessary for levothyroxine, as it has a long half-life and requires time to reach a steady state.
4. A client is prescribed Amitriptyline for depression. What should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Expect therapeutic effects in 1-3 weeks.
- B. Discontinue the medication gradually under healthcare provider supervision.
- C. Change positions slowly to minimize dizziness.
- D. Increase dietary fiber intake to prevent constipation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Changing positions slowly can help prevent orthostatic hypotension, a common adverse effect of tricyclic antidepressants like Amitriptyline. It is essential to educate the client to avoid sudden position changes to minimize the risk of dizziness and falls. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. The therapeutic effects of Amitriptyline may not be noticeable for 1-3 weeks, so expecting them in 24 to 48 hours (choice A) is unrealistic. Discontinuing the medication abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should be done gradually under healthcare provider supervision, so choice B is incorrect. Amitriptyline can actually cause constipation, so increasing dietary fiber intake would be recommended to prevent constipation, making choice D incorrect.
5. A client is receiving Cefotaxime IV for a severe infection. Which finding indicates a potentially serious adverse reaction to this medication that the nurse should report to the provider?
- A. Diaphoresis
- B. Epistaxis
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Alopecia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Diarrhea is an adverse effect of cefotaxime and other cephalosporins that requires reporting to the provider. Severe diarrhea might indicate the client has developed antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis, which could be life-threatening. Diaphoresis, epistaxis, and alopecia are not typically associated with cefotaxime use and are less likely to indicate a serious adverse reaction necessitating immediate reporting.
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