a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for prednisone which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Prednisone, it is important to increase the intake of vitamin D to help mitigate the risk of bone loss associated with the medication. Vitamin D aids in calcium absorption, supporting bone health in individuals taking Prednisone.

2. When teaching a client about a new prescription for Celecoxib, which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should educate the client that taking Celecoxib increases the risk of a myocardial infarction due to its suppression of vasodilation. Celecoxib belongs to the class of NSAIDs known to have cardiovascular risks, including an increased risk of heart attacks. Choice B is incorrect because Celecoxib does not decrease the risk of stroke. Choice C is incorrect because Celecoxib selectively inhibits COX-2 rather than COX-1. Choice D is incorrect because Celecoxib does not increase platelet aggregation; in fact, it inhibits platelet aggregation.

3. A client is taking Epoetin Alfa for anemia. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the hematocrit level to evaluate the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa therapy. Epoetin Alfa stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hematocrit levels. Monitoring the hematocrit helps assess the response to therapy and ensures that the medication is effectively addressing the anemia. White blood cell count and platelet count are not directly affected by Epoetin Alfa therapy. Serum potassium level monitoring is important for other medications that may impact potassium levels but is not specifically relevant to assessing the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa in treating anemia.

4. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist that competitively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation or respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepines, administering Flumazenil can help reverse the effects and restore the client's consciousness and respiratory drive. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist and not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to counteract benzodiazepine sedation.

5. When teaching a client with schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine, which of the following should the nurse suggest to minimize anticholinergic effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.' Chewing sugarless gum can help alleviate dry mouth, which is a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Dry mouth can be uncomfortable and affect the client's oral health. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia (Option A) is unrelated to anticholinergic effects. Using cooling measures to decrease fever (Option C) is not a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea (Option D) does not specifically target anticholinergic effects.

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