Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take one tablet every 15 minutes until pain is relieved.
• B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three doses.
• C. Take one tablet at bedtime.
• D. Take one tablet on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct administration of Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets involves taking one tablet at the onset of chest pain and repeating every 5 minutes for up to three doses. This protocol helps in managing angina episodes effectively. Choice A suggests taking a tablet every 15 minutes until pain relief, which may delay appropriate intervention. Choice C, taking a tablet at bedtime, is not suitable for immediate relief during angina attacks. Choice D, taking a tablet on an empty stomach, is unrelated to the correct administration of Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets.

2. A client with Angina Pectoris asks the nurse about the next step if they take one tablet, wait 5 minutes, but still have Anginal pain. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Take two more sublingual tablets at the same time.
• B. Call emergency services.
• C. Take a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule.
• D. Wait another 5 minutes then take a second sublingual tablet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If anginal pain persists after taking the first tablet and waiting 5 minutes, the priority step is to call emergency services (911) and then take a second sublingual tablet. Persistent pain could indicate a myocardial infarction, and immediate medical attention is crucial. Taking two more tablets at the same time (Choice A) can lead to excessive vasodilation and hypotension. Taking a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule (Choice C) is not appropriate for immediate relief during an acute episode. Waiting another 5 minutes and then taking a second tablet (Choice D) is not advisable in this emergency situation where prompt action is necessary.

3. A client has a new prescription for Captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Captopril should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. The client should be instructed to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to optimize its effectiveness. Taking it with food can reduce its absorption and efficacy.

4. A client is prescribed Clopidogrel. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Platelet count
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's platelet count to assess for potential bleeding complications. Changes in platelet count can indicate the effectiveness of Clopidogrel therapy and help prevent adverse effects related to clotting or bleeding. Monitoring white blood cell count, hemoglobin, or blood glucose levels is not directly related to the action or side effects of Clopidogrel.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

• A. Butorphanol has a lower risk of abuse than morphine.
• B. Butorphanol causes a lower incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
• C. Butorphanol can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
• D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.

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