ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. When teaching parents about a child newly prescribed Desipramine, the nurse should instruct them that which of the following adverse effects is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Constipation
- B. Suicidal thoughts
- C. Photophobia
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority adverse effect to report when a child is prescribed Desipramine is suicidal thoughts. Desipramine can increase the risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. It is crucial for parents to monitor the child for any signs of worsening depression or thoughts of self-harm and report them promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent any harm to the child. Options A, C, and D are potential side effects of Desipramine but are not as urgent or life-threatening as suicidal thoughts, which require immediate intervention to ensure the safety of the child.
2. A client with breast cancer is being taught about Tamoxifen. Which of the following adverse effects of tamoxifen should the client be informed about?
- A. Irregular heart rhythm
- B. Abnormal uterine bleeding
- C. Yellowing of the sclera or dark-colored urine
- D. Difficulty swallowing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Abnormal uterine bleeding is a known adverse effect of tamoxifen. It is important to educate the client about this side effect as those taking tamoxifen are at an increased risk for endometrial cancer. Any abnormal uterine bleeding should be promptly reported and evaluated by healthcare providers to ensure timely management and monitoring. The other options, such as irregular heart rhythm, yellowing of the sclera or dark-colored urine, and difficulty swallowing, are not typically associated with tamoxifen use and are not commonly reported adverse effects. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to inform the client about.
3. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
- C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
- D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes while on Morphine IV to promptly detect respiratory depression, a critical adverse effect associated with this medication. Respiratory depression is a common side effect of opioid medications like Morphine and can be life-threatening. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently enables the nurse to identify early signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Monitoring other vital signs like blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate is important but not as crucial as monitoring respiratory rate when a client is on Morphine IV.
4. A client is prescribed Ranitidine. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored by the nurse?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC).
- B. Serum creatinine.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum glucose.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ranitidine can potentially lead to blood dyscrasias, necessitating the monitoring of the client's CBC. Checking the CBC can help detect any abnormalities in blood cell counts and assess the client's overall hematologic status during Ranitidine therapy.
5. A client is starting therapy with filgrastim. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Bone pain
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is starting therapy with filgrastim, monitoring for bone pain is essential. Filgrastim can lead to increased bone marrow activity, resulting in bone pain as a common adverse effect. Instructing the client to monitor and report any bone pain promptly can help in managing this side effect effectively.
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