Nursing Elites

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today.
• C. Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

2. A client is being taught by a nurse about long-term use of oral prednisone for chronic asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Weight Gain
• B. Nervousness
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight gain is a common adverse effect of long-term prednisone use. Prednisone, a corticosteroid medication, can cause fluid retention and increased appetite, leading to weight gain. Nervousness (choice B) is more commonly associated with stimulant medications or excessive caffeine intake. Bradycardia (choice C) refers to a slow heart rate and is not a typical adverse effect of prednisone. Constipation (choice D) is not a common side effect of prednisone; in fact, prednisone is more likely to cause gastrointestinal issues such as increased appetite and weight gain.

3. When providing discharge instructions to a client prescribed Prednisone, which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• C. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• D. Decrease your intake of protein.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Prednisone can lead to potassium depletion, making it essential to consume foods high in potassium, such as bananas, oranges, and spinach, to maintain electrolyte balance and prevent complications. Choice B is incorrect because increasing dairy products is not specifically necessary when taking Prednisone. Choice C is wrong as foods high in vitamin K are not contraindicated with Prednisone. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to decrease protein intake when prescribed Prednisone.

4. A healthcare professional is planning to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
• B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea that occurs with morphine.
• C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
• D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should take when administering Morphine IV to a postoperative client is to withhold the medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min. Respiratory depression is a common adverse effect of opioids like Morphine. Administering opioids when the respiratory rate is already compromised can further depress breathing, leading to life-threatening complications. Monitoring for seizures and confusion (Choice A) is not directly related to Morphine administration. Protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea (Choice B) is not a common side effect of morphine. Administering Morphine via IV bolus (Choice D) should be done carefully but is not the most critical action in this scenario.

5. A client has a new prescription for Oxycodone/Acetaminophen, and the nurse is providing discharge instructions. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid taking additional Acetaminophen while on this medication.
• C. Increase your intake of fiber while on this medication.
• D. Avoid taking the medication before bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a prescription for Oxycodone/Acetaminophen is to avoid taking additional Acetaminophen while on this medication. Combining medications containing Acetaminophen can lead to exceeding the maximum recommended dose and increase the risk of liver toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to emphasize the importance of not taking extra Acetaminophen while on this prescription to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Oxycodone/Acetaminophen on an empty stomach is not necessary; increasing fiber intake is not directly related to this medication, and avoiding taking the medication before bedtime is not a specific concern associated with this prescription.

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