a nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis and has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days the provider prescribes warfarin po
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

2. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist that can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation, administering Flumazenil can help counteract the excessive sedation and other effects of Diazepam, thereby promoting the client's recovery and preventing potential complications. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist, not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.

3. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Methotrexate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Methotrexate is not typically used to treat rheumatic fever, which is more commonly managed with antibiotics to eradicate the underlying infection. Methotrexate is commonly used in the treatment of conditions like sarcomas, leukemias, and ectopic pregnancies due to its anti-inflammatory and anti-cancer properties.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client scheduled for surgery. Which of the following medications places the client at risk for increased bleeding during surgery?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Aspirin is an anticoagulant that inhibits platelet function, increasing the risk of bleeding during surgery. It is important for the healthcare professional to identify this medication, inform the surgical team, and consider withholding it prior to surgery to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding. Warfarin is also an anticoagulant but can be managed by adjusting the dosage or monitoring INR levels. Acetaminophen and ibuprofen are not associated with increased bleeding risk as they do not affect platelet function like aspirin.

5. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia can result in muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias, making it essential for the nurse to monitor potassium levels closely when a client is on Spironolactone. Choice B, Hypoglycemia, is incorrect because Spironolactone is not known to cause low blood sugar levels. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, and Choice D, Hyponatremia, are also incorrect as Spironolactone is not associated with decreased levels of calcium or sodium.

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