Nursing Elites

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today.
• C. Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

2. When educating a client with a new prescription for Omeprazole to manage GERD, which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication before meals.
• B. You may need to take this medication for a long time.
• C. Increase your intake of vitamin C while taking this medication.
• D. Expect immediate relief of symptoms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication before meals. Omeprazole should be taken before meals to ensure its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production. This timing allows the medication to work on reducing acid secretion when the stomach is most actively producing it, leading to better control of symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because not all patients with GERD need to take Omeprazole for the rest of their lives; the duration of treatment varies. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to increase vitamin C intake while taking Omeprazole. Choice D is incorrect because Omeprazole may take a few days to start providing symptom relief, so immediate relief should not be expected.

3. A client has a new prescription for Filgrastim to treat neutropenia. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. This medication will help increase your white blood cell count.
• B. This medication will help reduce your risk of infection.
• C. This medication will help improve your red blood cell count.
• D. This medication will help increase your platelet count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include is that 'This medication will help increase your white blood cell count.' Filgrastim is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically neutrophils, to increase the white blood cell count. This increase in white blood cells helps reduce the risk of infections in clients with neutropenia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Filgrastim specifically targets white blood cells, not red blood cells or platelets.

4. A client has a new prescription for Captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Captopril should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. The client should be instructed to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to optimize its effectiveness. Taking it with food can reduce its absorption and efficacy.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who has chronic angina. Treatment for the condition has been unsuccessful. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
• C. Sildenafil (Viagra)
• D. Ranolazine (Ranexa)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of chronic angina where initial treatment has not been successful, Ranolazine (Ranexa) is often prescribed. This medication helps by reducing the frequency of angina episodes. Atenolol, Nitroglycerin, and Sildenafil are also used in angina management but Ranolazine is more specifically indicated in cases of refractory angina where other treatments have failed.

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