ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
- B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today.
- C. Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots.
- D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
2. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Expect to feel drowsy.
- B. Increase your intake of high-potassium foods.
- C. Take the medication with grapefruit juice.
- D. Avoid foods high in fat.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to expect to feel drowsy. Clonidine is known to cause drowsiness, especially at the beginning of treatment. It is important for clients to be cautious with activities that require alertness until they understand how the medication affects them. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to increase high-potassium foods with Clonidine. Choice C is incorrect as grapefruit juice can interact with many medications but is not a typical instruction for Clonidine. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific indication to avoid foods high in fat with Clonidine.
3. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours.
- B. Offer oral hygiene every 2 hours.
- C. Anticipate medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery.
- D. Monitor fetal heart rate every 2 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is receiving IV Opioid analgesics during labor, the nurse should offer oral hygiene every 2 hours. Opioid analgesics can cause adverse effects like dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting. Providing oral hygiene care helps alleviate these symptoms and maintains the client's comfort and well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate during labor as mobility may be limited. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's needs and the progress of labor. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but it is not specifically related to the client receiving IV Opioid analgesics.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking Lithium for Bipolar Disorder. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider immediately?
- A. Lithium level of 1.0 mEq/L
- B. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
- C. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
- D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL should be reported to the provider immediately. While a lithium level of 1.0 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range, a creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL could suggest early signs of kidney dysfunction, especially concerning in a client on long-term lithium therapy. It is crucial to monitor kidney function closely because lithium can be nephrotoxic over time. Elevated creatinine levels may indicate impaired kidney function and should prompt immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Potassium and sodium levels within normal range are not immediate concerns when compared to potential kidney issues.
5. A client has a new prescription for Cyclobenzaprine to treat muscle spasms. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach for best results.
- C. Take this medication only when experiencing muscle pain.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include in the teaching for a client prescribed Cyclobenzaprine is to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication. Cyclobenzaprine can cause drowsiness, so it is important to advise clients to avoid activities that require alertness and coordination to prevent accidents or injuries. Choice B is incorrect because Cyclobenzaprine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect because Cyclobenzaprine is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just when experiencing muscle pain. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific need to increase potassium-rich foods while taking Cyclobenzaprine.
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