Nursing Elites

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today.
• C. Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

2. A client has a new prescription for Captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor your blood pressure weekly.
• C. Notify your provider if you develop a persistent cough.
• D. Avoid using salt substitutes to prevent hyperkalemia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients prescribed with Captopril, an ACE inhibitor, are at risk of developing a persistent cough as a common adverse effect. It is essential for the client to inform their healthcare provider promptly if this side effect occurs to evaluate the need for a medication change or adjustment.

3. Which of the following is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity?

• A. Flumazenil
• B. Methylene blue
• C. Deferoxamine
• D. Alkalinize urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity. It acts as a competitive antagonist at the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABA receptor, reversing the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Administration of flumazenil is indicated in cases of benzodiazepine overdose or toxicity to rapidly reverse the central nervous system depression caused by these drugs. It is important to note that flumazenil should be used cautiously in patients with a history of seizures or those who are physically dependent on benzodiazepines, as it can precipitate withdrawal symptoms or seizures.

4. Which of the following is not directly related to drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin?

• A. Headaches
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Projectile vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Headaches, tachycardia, and dizziness are common side effects of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory properties. Projectile vomiting is not typically associated with nitroglycerin toxicity, making it the correct answer. Therefore, option D is the correct choice.

5. A client is taking Digoxin and has a new prescription for Colesevelam. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take digoxin with your morning dose of colesevelam.
• B. Your sodium and potassium levels will be monitored periodically while taking colesevelam.
• C. Watch for bleeding or bruising while taking colesevelam.
• D. Take colesevelam with food and at least one glass of water.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When taking colesevelam, it should be administered with food and at least 8 oz of water to ensure proper absorption and reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Taking colesevelam with food also helps in binding to bile acids efficiently. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the necessary instruction for taking colesevelam correctly or monitoring specific side effects associated with this medication.

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